NASCLA Commercial General Building Contractor

Bid instructions require bid security with each sealed bid. Which purpose should the estimator associate with that requirement?

Two addenda revise the drawings before bid day. What must a responsive bidder normally do with those addenda?

The bid form asks for a base bid and three alternates. How should the contractor submit alternate pricing?

A specification includes a $40,000 hardware allowance because final selections are pending. How is the allowance treated in the bid?

The earthwork section requires unit prices for unsuitable-soil removal. What is the contract-administration use of those unit prices?

Before the first progress payment, the owner requests a schedule of values. What is its main contract-payment function?

A signed change order is issued for added lobby millwork. Which contract effect should it state?

The owner needs a scope change to proceed before price and time are fully agreed. Which instrument is used to direct the change while reserving later adjustment?

A framing detail conflicts between the plan and wall section. What is the proper use of an RFI in this situation?

A pay application includes materials stored off site. What documentation is normally needed before payment is considered?

The contract allows retainage on progress payments. What does retainage mean in pay-application administration?

A project has long-lead curtain wall anchors and switchboards. What should a procurement log track for those items?

Three subcontract bids for the same scope arrive with different inclusions and exclusions. What is the purpose of bid leveling before award?

The bid quantity for unsuitable soil was 500 cy at $38/cy. Field measurements show 620 cy. What added payment is due for the overrun?

Bidder A includes a $22,000 allowance in its bid. Bidder B excludes that same required allowance and bids $1,318,000. What normalized comparison number should be used for Bidder B?

A base bid is $1,840,000. The owner accepts Add Alternate 1 for $45,000 and Deduct Alternate 2 for $18,000. What contract amount results?

This month's approved earned value is $240,000, and the contract retains 10 percent. What net progress payment is due before prior-payment adjustments?

A contract holds a $30,000 warranty reserve. After correction of accepted items, 80 percent of the reserve is released. What amount remains reserved?

A material line item of $210,000 is subject to an approved 6% escalation adjustment. What is the adjustment amount?

A $60,000 mobilization item is 40% payable at NTP and 60% after field office setup. What amount is payable at NTP?

The estimate carried $485,000 for roofing. The subcontract is bought for $462,500 with aligned scope. What buyout savings are shown?

A contract holds a $15,000 warranty reserve and releases 80% after one year. What amount is released?

A contract unit price for pressure grouting is $82/lf. Approved added work measures 145 lf. What added payment is due?

A $50,000 flooring allowance is included in the contract. The approved actual flooring cost is $43,500. What contract adjustment reconciles the allowance before markup terms?

A payment reviewer tests the arithmetic: a unit-price item overruns by 344 cy at $122/cy. What added payment is due?

A change proposal includes 320 labor-hours at $48/hour plus a 12 percent labor burden. What loaded labor cost should be carried?

A long-lead item is needed on site by project day 90. Submittal review takes 14 days, fabrication takes 35 days, and shipping takes 7 days. What is the latest release day to preserve the need date?

At closeout, the project engineer checks one requirement: a unit-price item overruns by 449 cy at $157/cy. What added payment is due?

A contract unit price is $42 per cubic yard. The owner authorizes 175 additional cubic yards. What is the additive amount?

A contract allows 10 percent overhead and then 5 percent profit on a $18,000 direct-cost change. If profit is applied after overhead, what total proposal amount results?

A floor under construction has 7,800 sf of protected building area. Using one 2A extinguisher per 3,000 sf or major fraction, how many extinguishers are required before travel-distance checks?

A crew works 20 overtime hours with a $36/hr base rate and time-and-one-half premium. What is the overtime labor cost?

A work package has earned value of $410,000 and actual cost of $435,000. What is the cost variance?

Field office rental totals $18,900 for 9 months. What is the monthly cost?

A cleanup crew can complete 700 sf of final sweep and debris removal per day. How many full workdays are needed for 4,200 sf?

A temporary protection task uses 5 workers for 8 hours per day over 4 days. How many labor-hours should be recorded?

An activity has an early start of day 14 and a late start of day 18. What total float is indicated by those dates?

A punch crew has closed 360 items from a 480-item quality log. What percent complete is the punch effort?

A closeout team can verify 12 rooms per day. If 96 rooms remain on the final inspection list, how many days are needed?

A subcontract administrator catches this issue before award: a crew of 4 workers spends 7 hours per day for 3 days on temporary protection. How many labor-hours are recorded?

A contract clause is applied to this fact pattern: a room closeout team verifies 12 rooms per day. If 88 rooms remain, how many whole days are required?

The estimator marks a risk item in the bid recap: an activity has early start day 12 and late start day 21. What total float is shown?

A civil foreman reviews the trench plan: a room closeout team verifies 10 rooms per day. If 104 rooms remain, how many whole days are required?

A field change log shows this condition: an activity has early start day 16 and late start day 29. What total float is shown?

A crew installs 420 linear ft of layout control in 7 hours. What average production rate did the crew achieve?

During turnover document review, a room closeout team verifies 10 rooms per day. If 248 rooms remain, how many whole days are required?

A crew has 960 units remaining and averages 120 units per day. How many workdays are needed?

The weekly OAC agenda includes this unresolved item: an activity has early start day 52 and late start day 101. What total float is shown?

A task requires 288 labor-hours and must be completed in 3 days with 8-hour shifts. How many workers are needed?

A work package has 750 units complete out of 1,250 planned units. What percent complete is it?

An activity was planned to finish on day 42 but actually finished on day 47. What is the finish variance?

A recovery plan adds 3 workers for 5 days at 8 hours per day. How many added labor-hours are planned?

Out of 500 inspected units, 35 require rework. What is the rework percentage?

Three submittals were returned in 6, 9, and 12 days. What was the average turnaround?

A lift is used productively for 5.5 hours during an 8-hour shift. What is the utilization?

A quality check accepts 46 of 50 rooms on first inspection. What is the first-pass yield?

A contractor had 3 OSHA-recordable cases and 150,000 labor-hours. What is the total recordable incident rate using the 200,000-hour base?

A project logged 2 DART cases and 80,000 labor-hours. What is the DART rate using the 200,000-hour base?

A site recorded 12 near misses over 60,000 labor-hours. Using a 200,000-hour base, what near-miss rate is reported?

A project has a $1,200,000 BAC and a CPI of 0.80. Using BAC/CPI, what is the estimate at completion?

Using the dimensions shown for the stabilized construction entrance, what is the plan area?

A utility trench is 180 ft long, 3 ft wide, and 7 ft deep with vertical sides inside a trench shield. What excavation volume is required?

A 120 ft long Type C trench is cut with a 4 ft bottom width and a 6 ft depth. If side slopes are 1-1/2 horizontal to 1 vertical, what excavation volume is closest?

A storm pipe run needs 240 ft of bedding, 4 ft wide and 6 in. thick. Including a 10 percent ordering allowance, how many cubic yards of bedding aggregate are needed?

A mass excavation produces 1,180 loose cubic yards of material for off-site disposal. End-dump trucks can haul 18 loose cubic yards per trip. What truck count is required?

A staging pad is 160 ft by 90 ft and needs 8 in. of compacted aggregate base. Using 1.6 tons per cubic yard, what aggregate tonnage is closest?

Silt fence is needed on three sides of a 220 ft by 140 ft disturbed pad; the remaining 220 ft side is protected by a stabilized construction entrance. Adding 5 percent for overlaps and returns, what fence length should be ordered?

A dewatering pump discharges 75 gallons per minute for 3 hours. How many gallons are discharged?

Bank excavation is 1,035 cubic yards and soil swells 20 percent for hauling. What loose volume is hauled?

A fill area needs 840 compacted cubic yards. If shrinkage from loose to compacted volume is 15 percent, what loose volume is needed?

A trench run is 200 ft long and requires bedding 4 ft wide by 0.5 ft deep. How many cubic yards of bedding are needed?

For the owner coordination call, bank excavation is 1215 cy and soil swells 20 percent for hauling. What loose volume is hauled?

A fill area needs 960 compacted cubic yards. If shrinkage from loose to compacted volume is 15 percent, what loose volume is needed?

Topsoil is stripped 6 in. deep over 12,000 sq ft. What volume is stripped?

On a fast-track school project, bank excavation is 2835 cy and soil swells 20 percent for hauling. What loose volume is hauled?

A fill area needs 2,040 compacted cubic yards. If shrinkage from loose to compacted volume is 15 percent, what loose volume is needed?

A utility trench is 240 ft long, 3 ft wide, and 5 ft deep. What is the excavation volume in cubic yards?

Pipe bedding is 2.5 ft wide, 0.5 ft deep, and 300 ft long. What bedding volume is required in cubic yards?

Excavated soil is 220 bank cubic yards and swells 18%. What loose volume must be hauled?

A compacted fill requires 1,500 cubic yards in place. Borrow material shrinks 12% from loose to compacted. How many loose cubic yards are needed?

A job must haul 312 loose cubic yards and each truck carries 12 loose cubic yards. How many full truck trips are needed?

A grading area has 2,850 cubic yards of cut and 3,120 cubic yards of fill required. What is the net import before shrink/swell?

A roughly conical stockpile has a 30 ft diameter and 10 ft height. Using V = 1/3 x pi x r^2 x h, what is the approximate volume in cubic yards?

Using the dimensions on the L-shaped laydown plan, what is the net plan area?

Using the staging pad dimensions shown, what is the plan area of the pad?

Using the dimensions shown, what is the net area of the L-shaped stockpile pad?

What net plan area is shown for the L-shaped washout access pad?

From the sediment berm plan, what is the total centerline length of the four shown segments?

Using the dimensions shown, what is the plan area of the temporary crane mat?

What plan area is shown for the rectangular equipment staging pad?

A 44 ft by 28 ft slab will be placed 5 in. thick. Including 6 percent waste, how many cubic yards should be ordered to the nearest tenth?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the slab panel dimensions and 9 in. thickness, what concrete volume is shown?

How many dowel bars are shown along the 26 ft footing run at 8 in. on center, counting both ends?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

A pile cap bottom will bear on undisturbed soil with reinforcing steel placed before the concrete is cast. For concrete cast against and permanently exposed to earth, which minimum cover does ACI 318 require?

Forms are being stripped from an exterior site wall reinforced with No. 4 horizontal bars. The wall face remains exposed to weather; what minimum concrete cover applies to those bars?

A formed equipment pedestal outdoors contains No. 8 vertical bars next to the formed side face. Under the ACI cover table, the side cover may not be less than which value?

An elevated office slab is inside the weather envelope and has No. 5 temperature bars near the bottom face. With no earth contact or weather exposure, ACI 318 permits what minimum cover for the slab bars?

A cast-in-place interior beam has stirrups and longitudinal reinforcement enclosed by forms, and the member will not contact soil or weather. Which cover is the ACI minimum for the beam reinforcement?

A 4000 psi normalweight concrete mix is being evaluated from standard strength tests. Which ACI 318 result set satisfies the acceptance rule for compressive strength?

For a 6000 psi concrete mixture, the superintendent checks the low-test limit in the ACI acceptance criteria. Ignoring the three-test average for a moment, which individual test value is the minimum allowed by that branch?

The testing agency molds 6 by 12 in. cylinders from one concrete sample for a normal compressive strength test. ACI 318 defines the test result as what?

A lab switches to 4 by 8 in. cylinders for field strength tests. Under the ACI definition, how many cylinders from the same sample are averaged for one strength test?

The structural drawings specify f'c but do not name a different test age. For standard-cured cylinders used to verify f'c, the default ACI test age is which one?

A slab placement has enough volume to require regular strength testing. Which sampling frequency statement matches ACI 318 for each concrete mixture placed on a day?

Three cores are drilled after low cylinder results for a 5000 psi member. Which ACI core result is acceptable for the questioned concrete area?

A wall form has tight reinforcement, and the concrete supplier asks for the maximum nominal aggregate size allowed by ACI proportioning limits. Which set of limits governs?

A contractor wants to stop a cast-in-place floor beam pour away from a column line. For beams and slabs, where does ACI direct ordinary floor-system construction joints unless the design permits otherwise?

Electrical conduit is proposed inside a 6 in. thick structural slab before the concrete pour. Which ACI dimensional limit is the key check for conduit outside diameter in that member?

Nineteen steel deck sheets each cover 31 sq ft. What total coverage is available before waste?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

What net steel grating area remains after the access hatch opening is deducted?

A base plate uses 4 anchor rods. If 18 columns use the same base plate, how many anchor rods are required?

A steel joist seat is 3/8 in. low and an approved shim pack will correct the seat elevation. What shim thickness is needed?

A steel stair rises 9 ft floor-to-floor with 6 in. risers. How many risers are required?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

Why is joist bridging not simply cosmetic?

An ironworker crosses an unprotected beam edge 18 ft above the next lower level, and the work is not connector work or initial decking in a controlled decking zone. What fall-protection trigger applies?

A connector is making a beam connection 34 ft above grade. Under OSHA steel erection, which fall-protection threshold has been exceeded for connector work?

A metal deck crew establishes a controlled decking zone while installing initial deck panels 24 ft above the lower level. What is the maximum CDZ size from any leading edge?

Inside a controlled decking zone, the foreman tracks panels that have been laid but not finally secured. What OSHA cap applies to unsecured decking in the CDZ?

During initial metal decking, a panel is placed in the controlled decking zone. What is the minimum OSHA safety-attachment count for that panel?

A structural steel column base detail is checked before erection. What minimum number of anchor rods does OSHA require for each column?

The erector asks what temporary stability load the column anchor-rod assembly must resist. Which OSHA value and eccentricity are specified?

A crane is holding a solid-web beam while ironworkers install the end connections. Before the hoisting line is released, what minimum OSHA connection condition must be met?

A solid-web diagonal brace is being installed for frame stability during steel erection. What minimum bolt condition does OSHA allow at each brace connection?

A perimeter column is being fabricated for a multistory steel frame. How far must it normally extend above the finished floor so perimeter safety cables can be installed before the next tier?

On a multistory steel frame, unfinished bolting or welding is progressing above the uppermost permanently secured floor. What OSHA limit applies?

Steel erection work is moving several levels above the last completed floor. How close must a fully planked or decked floor or nets be maintained directly under the erection work?

A K-series open-web steel joist is seated on its support. Which minimum OSHA end attachment is acceptable for each end of that joist?

Six W18x35 beams, each 42 ft long, are released for shipment. Using the nominal 35 lb/ft shape weight, what shipping weight should be carried before dunnage?

A rooftop unit schedule lists capacity in tons of cooling. In HVAC estimating, one ton of cooling equals what heat-transfer rate?

A tank contains 180 gallons of water. Using 8.34 lb/gal, what is the water weight?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the plumbing riser assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the plumbing riser assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the plumbing riser assembly?

A duct has 3 sq ft of area and air velocity is 720 fpm. What airflow is carried?

A rooftop unit is rated at 6 tons of cooling. What capacity is that in Btu/h?

A condensate drain must slope 1/8 in. per ft for 64 ft. What total fall is required?

A pump schedule lists a motor in horsepower, but the electrical coordination table uses watts. Which conversion should be recognized for one horsepower?

A hydronic piping flush calculation converts pipe volume from cubic feet to gallons. Which conversion should be used for water volume?

A water-filled tank load is checked before it is placed on a housekeeping pad. What weight per gallon should be used for water?

A pump submittal converts pressure to feet of water head. Approximately how many feet of water head equal 1 psi?

A 2 in. horizontal sanitary branch is laid out in a ceiling space. Which minimum slope is commonly required for small horizontal drainage piping?

A 4 in. horizontal building drain is installed below a slab. Which minimum gravity slope is commonly used for 3 in. through 6 in. drainage pipe?

A plumbing rough-in inspection checks fixture trap seals. What common water-seal range is used for fixture traps?

A plumber lays out a water closet centerline beside a side wall. What minimum centerline clearance to the side obstruction is commonly checked?

A toilet room rough-in is checked before partitions are ordered. What minimum clear space in front of a water closet is commonly used for general plumbing layout?

A sanitary rough-in for a floor-mounted water closet is coordinated with the underground plumber. Which minimum drain size is commonly used for the water closet branch?

A commercial lavatory rough-in is being checked against the fixture schedule. Which trap size is commonly associated with a lavatory?

A shower drain is roughed in before the waterproofing inspection. Which fixture trap size is commonly used for a shower?

A rectangular supply duct is 24 in. by 12 in. inside and carries air at 800 fpm. What airflow is carried by that duct?

A packaged cooling unit is scheduled for 180,000 Btu/h total cooling capacity. How many tons of cooling is that?

A hydronic pump must overcome 54 psi of pressure drop. Using 2.31 ft of water per psi, what pump head is closest?

A flushing plan includes 300 ft of pipe with a 2 in. inside diameter. Using 7.48 gal/cf, what water volume is inside the pipe?

A condensate drain runs 72 ft to a floor sink at a required slope of 1/8 in. per ft. What total fall is needed?

A mechanical room is 40 ft by 30 ft by 12 ft high. If temporary exhaust is set for 6 air changes per hour, what exhaust rate is required?

A hydronic piping scope has 28 straight pipe pieces, each 20 ft long. The insulation order includes 5 percent for cuts and fittings. What insulation length should be carried?

A temporary water tank contains 1,250 gallons during a pressure test. Using 8.34 lb/gal, what water weight should be considered?

A plumber finds that a sanitary pipe sleeve through a rated wall was omitted before the wall was closed. The crew proposes core drilling and leaving the annular space open. What should the superintendent require?

On the mechanical plan, find equipment tag WH-9; then read the equipment schedule. What voltage is shown?

A wood deck surface has 320 sf of coverage. Boards have a 5-1/2 in. actual face width, and the order includes an 8 percent cutting allowance. What linear footage is closest?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

What net roof-cricket sheathing area is shown after the skylight opening is deducted?

A single row of solid blocking is installed between 17 floor joists. Each block is cut 14-1/2 in. long. What total block length is required?

A shear wall top plate line is 48 ft long. Nails are placed at 6 in. on center along that line, with a nail at both ends. What nail count is required along the line?

A gypsum board scope requires 180 sheets before waste. With 7 percent waste, how many sheets should be carried?

A wall board order contains 90 gypsum panels, and each panel requires 32 screws. What screw count is carried?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the wall bracing panel assembly?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the wall bracing panel assembly?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the wall bracing panel assembly?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the wall bracing panel assembly?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

A temporary brace detail calls for 10d common nails. What length matches a common 10d nail?

A combustible concealed wall cavity is being framed in wood construction. Under the IBC fireblocking rule, what maximum vertical and horizontal interval is used within concealed spaces?

A wood-framed egress stair is laid out under the IBC commercial stair provisions. What maximum riser height applies before considering special exceptions?

The stair shop drawing shows a commercial egress stair with wood treads. What minimum tread depth does the IBC generally require?

A carpenter installs wall-mounted handrails along a wood stair. What height range does the IBC use for handrails measured above stair nosings?

A wood guard is installed at an elevated floor edge in a commercial building. What minimum guard height is generally required by the IBC?

A floor joist end bears on a wood girder. Under conventional wood framing rules, what minimum end bearing should be provided on wood or metal supports?

A straight 32 ft partition has studs at 16 in. on center, with a stud at each end and no openings. What stud count should be carried for the run?

A subfloor area totals 1,200 sf. Standard 4 ft by 8 ft panels are used, and the order includes an 8 percent cutting allowance. What panel count should be ordered?

A beam infill package includes twenty-four nominal 2x10 members, each 16 ft long. Using board-foot measure, what lumber quantity is represented?

A reroof area requires 14,720 sf of rigid insulation. Boards are 4 ft by 8 ft, and the order includes 5 percent waste. How many boards are needed?

An asphalt-shingle roof has a slope of 3:12. Under the IBC low-slope asphalt-shingle provisions, what underlayment arrangement is required?

A gable roof covers a 60 ft by 40 ft rectangular plan. The slope factor for the 6:12 roof is 1.118. Before waste, how many roofing squares are needed?

A cricket drains 36 ft from its high point to a roof drain at a taper of 1/4 in. per foot. What thickness change occurs over that run?

An EIFS elevation is 74 ft wide and 22 ft high. Deduct six windows, each 4 ft by 5 ft. With no waste added yet, what net EIFS area is closest?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

What net waterproofing area is shown after the pipe-box opening is deducted?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

Parapet coping is needed around a rectangular roof that is 180 ft by 96 ft. Two 12 ft equipment-screen gaps are excluded. What coping length is required before waste?

A sealant subcontractor prices 1,260 lf of control joints. The bid includes 8 percent extra for mockups, corners, and waste. What linear footage should be carried?

A corridor needs resilient base on two 84-ft walls. How many linear feet of base are required before waste?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

What total counterflashing length is shown around the three parapet returns?

A low-slope roof takeoff measures 18,400 sf of membrane field area. The estimator adds 7 percent for laps, perimeter waste, and detailing. What order area should be carried?

A roof drain is 44 ft from a high point, and tapered insulation is set at 1/4 in. per foot. What elevation drop should the cricket provide?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

A modified bitumen roof assembly is proposed over tapered insulation. What minimum slope should be checked under the IBC roof-covering provisions?

A thermoset single-ply roof membrane is selected for a large low-slope roof. What minimum slope does the IBC list for that roof covering?

A TPO roof is treated as a thermoplastic single-ply membrane under the roof code. What minimum slope is the contractor expected to maintain?

In an area where ice dams are a code concern, how far must the roof ice barrier extend into the building under the IBC roof-underlayment rule?

A low-slope built-up roof is being checked against the IBC roof-covering slope table. What minimum slope is used for built-up roofs?

A wall cladding crew starts above a low roof before the base flashing and counterflashing are installed. Water will shed from the wall onto that roof edge. What is the best correction?

A cold-climate wall mockup shows the vapor retarder installed on the exterior side of cavity insulation, contrary to the design. What should happen before the wall is closed?

On the finish plan, locate room R358; then use the finish schedule. What remarks is listed?

A finish wall area is 1,520 sq ft and paint covers 380 sq ft per gallon. How many gallons are needed for one coat before waste?

A drywall scope has 28 outside corners, each 9 ft high. Corner bead is ordered in 10 ft sticks with no splicing planned. What stick count is needed?

A gypsum board level has 1,420 lf of board joints measured from the layout. The foreman adds 10 percent for corners, repairs, and waste. What tape length should be carried?

A 2 ft by 2 ft acoustical ceiling covers 1,760 sf. The order includes 5 percent extra attic stock. What tile count should be ordered?

A repaint scope has 7,200 sf of wall surface and requires two finish coats. The coating covers 360 sf per gallon per coat. What paint quantity is required before rounding for pails?

A rectangular room is 42 ft by 28 ft. Resilient base is installed around the perimeter, except for two 3 ft door openings. Adding 5 percent waste, what linear footage should be carried?

A porcelain tile floor measures 1,125 sf after cabinet deductions. The installer orders 12 percent extra for cuts and breakage. What order area is required?

A wall board order contains 96 gypsum panels, and the crew estimates 32 screws per 4 ft by 8 ft panel. What screw count is carried?

A room ceiling is 24 ft by 36 ft and uses 2 ft by 4 ft acoustical tiles. How many full tiles cover the area before waste?

On the finish plan, locate room R321; then use the finish schedule. What floor finish is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R363; then use the finish schedule. What floor finish is listed?

A tenant wall package has 2,880 sf of gypsum board surface. Standard 4 ft by 8 ft panels are used, and the order includes 7 percent waste. What sheet count should be ordered?

Resilient flooring is scheduled over a new concrete slab, but moisture testing has not been completed. The flooring crew wants to install to meet the turnover date. What is the correct field decision?

Large-format floor tile is being installed over a slab with visible humps. The tile setter says extra thinset will flatten the floor as work proceeds. What should the superintendent require?

On the finish plan, locate room R326; then use the finish schedule. What wall finish is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R364; then use the finish schedule. What wall finish is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R331; then use the finish schedule. What ceiling is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R369; then use the finish schedule. What ceiling is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R332; then use the finish schedule. What base is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R374; then use the finish schedule. What base is listed?

A drywall foreman checks screw spacing along the supported edge of a gypsum wall panel. Which maximum spacing is commonly used at supported wall edges?

A corridor finish is specified as IBC Class B interior wall finish. Which flame-spread index range corresponds to Class B?

A room finish is checked against the IBC Class C flame-spread category. Which range defines Class C interior finish?

A ceiling grid uses nominal 2 ft by 2 ft acoustical panels. What face area is covered by one full tile?

A lay-in ceiling uses 2 ft by 4 ft acoustical panels. What area does one panel cover before cuts?

On the finish plan, locate room R310; then use the finish schedule. What ceiling is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R348; then use the finish schedule. What ceiling is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R315; then use the finish schedule. What base is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R353; then use the finish schedule. What base is listed?

Using the dimensions shown for the grout pour cell zone, what is the plan area?

Six reinforced masonry pilaster spaces each have a clear grout area of 8 in. by 8 in. and a height of 10 ft. Ignoring waste, what grout volume is required?

What is the total length of the control joint spacing centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the grout pour cell zone, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the control joint spacing centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the grout pour cell zone, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the control joint spacing centerline shown on the drawing?

A veneer shelf angle run needs 96 ft of flashing. The crew expects eight field splices, each with a 6 in. lap. What total flashing length should be supplied?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the CMU wall lift assembly?

A 40 ft by 12 ft CMU wall is built with nominal 8 by 16 face units. Using 1.125 units per square foot and a 5 percent ordering allowance, what unit count should be ordered?

A single-wythe modular brick screen wall has 300 sf of net face area. Using 6.75 modular brick per square foot and adding 5 percent for cuts and breakage, what brick quantity is closest?

An anchored veneer elevation is 36 ft long and 14 ft high. Using the prescriptive maximum of 2.67 sq ft per anchor, what minimum number of veneer anchors is required before adding opening-edge anchors?

A masonry opening head is detailed at 7 ft 4 in. above the slab. Using standard 8 in. CMU coursing, how many full courses reach that height?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the CMU wall lift assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the CMU wall lift assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the CMU wall lift assembly?

A submittal lists standard 8 by 8 by 16 concrete masonry units. What actual unit size should the estimator use when allowing for a 3/8 in. mortar joint?

For a typical above-grade veneer backup repair, the documents call for Type N mortar. What minimum 28-day compressive strength corresponds to Type N mortar?

An interior nonloadbearing masonry repair is specified with Type O mortar. Which 28-day compressive strength value matches Type O in the common mortar property table?

A reinforced CMU wall is scheduled for fine grout. Which slump range is commonly specified for masonry grout so it can flow around bars and into cells?

A detail stacks standard CMU courses from top of footing to a bond beam. What nominal vertical module does one standard CMU course occupy with its bed joint?

Clay brick on a hot, windy day pulls water from the mortar so quickly that joints become stiff before tooling. What field response addresses the masonry problem?

What is the total length of the control joint spacing centerline shown on the drawing?

A mockup uses U.S. modular face brick. Which actual brick size corresponds to the nominal modular unit used with a standard mortar joint?

The mason is laying a running-bond CMU wall without a special joint profile. Which nominal bed and head joint thickness is the standard layout assumption?

A specification calls for Type M mortar by property specification. Which minimum 28-day compressive strength is associated with that mortar type?

Below-grade reinforced masonry is specified with Type S mortar. Which 28-day compressive strength value should be recognized for Type S under the common ASTM property table?

A grout submittal for reinforced masonry lists compressive strength. Which minimum value is commonly required for masonry grout unless the documents require more?

An anchored brick veneer wall uses adjustable metal anchors. Under the IBC/TMS prescriptive spacing rule, each veneer anchor may support no more than what wall area?

Brick veneer flashing is installed above a shelf angle. What maximum on-center spacing is commonly used for open head-joint weeps under the IBC masonry veneer provisions?

A storefront opening is 48 ft wide and 10 ft high. Deduct two aluminum entrance doors, each 3 ft by 7 ft, from the glazed area. What net glass area remains?

Two 36 in. wide hinged doors in series both swing into the vestibule space between them. Using the accessible separation rule, what minimum clear distance is required between the doors?

A curtain wall repair has 18 vertical joints at 12 ft each and 9 horizontal joints at 28 ft each. What total sealant joint length is measured before waste?

A tenant floor has 14 single-leaf office doors, 3 pair doors, and 2 single-leaf restroom doors. Counting one hardware set per active leaf, how many hardware sets are needed?

A hotel elevation has 11 identical punched windows per floor for 6 floors. The owner adds 5 percent attic stock for future replacement. What window count should be ordered?

A tempered glass panel is 5 ft by 9 ft. The supplier weight is 6.5 lb per square foot. What is the panel weight before hardware?

A 36 in. nominal swinging door is installed in a frame where stops and door thickness reduce clear opening by 3-1/2 in. when open 90 degrees. What clear opening remains?

A rectangular lite is 42 in. wide and 78 in. high. Glazing stop is needed around all four sides, and the cut list adds 10 percent waste. What stop length should be carried?

On the door plan, locate door D83; then use the door schedule. What rating is listed?

From the door schedule, which hardware set is assigned to door D470?

From the door schedule, what frame material is scheduled for door D480?

On the window plan, locate window W84; then use the window schedule. What frame is listed?

On the window plan, locate window W131; then use the window schedule. What opening is listed?

An interior non-fire-rated swinging door on an accessible route is measured with a door-force gauge. What maximum opening force should be used?

A door closer is installed on an accessible hinged door. From an open position of 90 degrees, what minimum closing time is checked before the door reaches 12 degrees from the latch?

A full-lite swinging entrance door is submitted with ordinary annealed glass. Under IBC hazardous-location rules, how is glazing in swinging doors generally treated?

A glass guardrail panel arrives without permanent safety-glazing identification. The panel will be installed at an atrium edge. What should happen before installation?

A punched window is set before the sill flashing membrane is lapped into the rough opening. The WRB is already cut around the opening. What should the crew do?

A field-glazed storefront lite is resting directly on the metal sill without setting blocks. The installer says sealant will hold it in place. What is the quality concern?

A rated wood door needs a larger vision lite than shown on the approved hardware and door schedule. The carpenter proposes cutting the opening in the field. What should the superintendent require?

A new accessible entrance threshold is installed at 3/4 in. high with an abrupt vertical face. What is the correct field response?

What frame material is listed for door D303 in the door schedule?

A single swinging door on an accessible route is checked with the door open 90 degrees. What minimum clear opening width must be provided?

A new accessible entrance door has a raised threshold. What maximum threshold height is allowed in new construction before considering existing-threshold exceptions?

Lever hardware on an accessible door is being laid out before hollow-metal frames are set. What mounting height range applies to operable door hardware?

A push-side door surface on an accessible route has projecting trim near the bottom rail. What minimum smooth-surface height is required on the push side?

A vision lite is provided in an accessible door for viewing. What maximum height applies to the bottom of at least one vision panel?

Two hinged doors occur in series in an accessible vestibule, and both swing into the space between them. What minimum separation rule is checked between the doors?

A fixed glass sidelight is next to a swinging door. Its nearest vertical edge is within 24 in. of the door in the closed position, and the bottom exposed edge is below 60 in. above the floor. What does IBC 2406 generally require?

A fixed storefront lite has exposed area over 9 sf, its bottom edge is 12 in. above the floor, its top edge is above 36 in., and a walking surface is within 36 in. horizontally. What IBC glazing condition is met?

A 45 kVA single-phase transformer is served at 240 V. Ignoring losses, what primary current is drawn at full load?

On the electrical plan, locate circuit tag C37; then read the panel schedule. What wire is shown?

On the electrical plan, locate circuit tag C39; then read the panel schedule. What breaker is shown?

A small branch circuit trips during startup, and a subcontractor proposes installing a larger breaker without checking the conductors or equipment. What should the superintendent understand?

A long branch-circuit homerun is upsized with larger conductors to reduce voltage drop. What is the best statement about the breaker serving that circuit?

An outlet box contains multiple conductors, splices, and a device, and the electrician is trying to force the device into the box. What is the construction-manager concern?

A service load review for a tenant improvement includes many general-use receptacles. What is the best management-level check?

Site backfill is scheduled before the service grounding electrode work has been inspected. What should the superintendent coordinate?

A sign circuit is expected to operate for long periods during business hours. What is the best load-planning principle for the contractor to raise during review?

A rooftop unit motor has a running amp value on the equipment submittal and a much higher starting demand. What should the GC coordinate before rough-in?

A mechanical room has several motors served from the same electrical distribution equipment. What information is most important for feeder/load coordination?

An estimator is reviewing receptacle loads for a small office tenant improvement. What is the best source for the allowance used in the load calculation?

A remote piece of equipment is served by a long branch circuit, and the owner reports low-voltage sensitivity. What electrical design issue should be coordinated?

Stored ceiling tile pallets are placed directly in front of a switchgear lineup on the day of startup. What should the superintendent require before energization work proceeds?

A conduit sleeve through a rated corridor wall is installed, but the annular space is left open above the ceiling. What correction belongs on the punch list?

A new electrical room layout shows a casework run proposed beside a panelboard. What is the best coordination action before releasing the wall and casework layout?

A lighting panel is planned on a wall that will receive gypsum board and tenant storage shelving nearby. What should be verified before the framing inspection is signed off?

A mechanical pipe route is shown crossing low in front of a switchboard service area. What coordination response best protects the electrical installation?

During overhead rough-in, EMT runs above an accessible ceiling are visibly sagging and tied to ceiling grid wires. What should the superintendent require?

At device trim, several conductors in an outlet box are too short to terminate without pulling tension on the splice. What is the correct quality response?

Pulling conductors into a panel without a bushing leaves visible cuts in the insulation at the raceway entry. What is the correct quality response?

A drywall lid is about to conceal junction boxes that contain splices, and no access panels are shown. What should be coordinated before the ceiling is closed?

During turnover, a panel directory still lists several breakers as spare even though they feed occupied tenant circuits. What is the best closeout correction?

A feeder termination has no torque record, and the installer used an adjustable wrench by feel. What should be required before acceptance?

In an electrical distribution system, what is the main purpose of bonding metal raceways and equipment enclosures?

What hazard is a ground-fault circuit interrupter primarily intended to reduce?

Why might a design require selective coordination between an upstream feeder breaker and a downstream branch breaker?

In a normal branch circuit downstream of the service equipment, how do the neutral conductor and equipment grounding conductor differ?

From the panel schedule, what breaker is shown for circuit C5?

From the panel schedule, what poles is shown for circuit C7?