NASCLA Commercial General Building Contractor

A subcontractor's pay application includes a large stored-material amount, but the supplier has not released the equipment for shipment or assigned it to the project. What is the payment risk?

A pay application includes materials stored off site. What documentation is normally needed before payment is considered?

The contract allows retainage on progress payments. What does retainage mean in pay-application administration?

The bid quantity for unsuitable soil was 500 cy at $38/cy. Field measurements show 620 cy. What added payment is due for the overrun?

Bidder A includes a $22,000 allowance in its bid. Bidder B excludes that same required allowance and bids $1,318,000. What normalized comparison number should be used for Bidder B?

A base bid is $1,840,000. The owner accepts Add Alternate 1 for $45,000 and Deduct Alternate 2 for $18,000. What contract amount results?

This month's approved earned value is $240,000, and the contract retains 10 percent. What net progress payment is due before prior-payment adjustments?

A material line item of $210,000 is subject to an approved 6% escalation adjustment. What is the adjustment amount?

A $60,000 mobilization item is 40% payable at NTP and 60% after field office setup. What amount is payable at NTP?

The estimate carried $485,000 for roofing. The subcontract is bought for $462,500 with aligned scope. What buyout savings are shown?

A contract holds a $15,000 warranty reserve and releases 80% after one year. What amount is released?

What is commonly triggered when a project reaches substantial completion?

Which instrument can direct a change before final agreement on price or time?

A contract unit price for pressure grouting is $82/lf. Approved added work measures 145 lf. What added payment is due?

A $50,000 flooring allowance is included in the contract. The approved actual flooring cost is $43,500. What contract adjustment reconciles the allowance before markup terms?

After bids are opened, the apparent low bidder admits its price omitted an addendum that changed door hardware. What should the procurement review focus on?

Bid leveling is mainly used to:

After bid opening, the low bidder finds a clerical error in its price. What should it do first?

The contractor's first schedule of values assigns nearly all profit to early demolition, leaving later finish work undervalued. What should the reviewer request?

A unit-price item overruns by 344 cy at $122/cy. What added payment is due?

A change proposal includes 320 labor-hours at $48/hour plus a 12 percent labor burden. What loaded labor cost should be carried?

A long-lead item is needed on site by project day 90. Submittal review takes 14 days, fabrication takes 35 days, and shipping takes 7 days. What is the latest release day to preserve the need date?

A contract unit price is $42 per cubic yard. The owner authorizes 175 additional cubic yards. What is the additive amount?

What does a best-value procurement allow an owner to do?

The contract sets liquidated damages at $1,500 per calendar day. If substantial completion is 7 days late, what amount is assessed?

The lowest drywall proposal excludes firestopping at head-of-wall joints, while the project specifications include it in the wall assemblies. What should the general contractor do during buyout?

A supplier offers a cheaper roofing membrane after award, but the specified system has already been approved in the submittal log. What should happen before the cheaper product is purchased?

An RFI response clarifies that added backing is required in walls already framed. The response changes cost and schedule. What should the contractor do?

Record drawings are most useful because they:

A negotiated project reimburses the contractor for allowable costs and pays a separately stated fee. Which contract type is being described?

A subcontractor proposes a cheaper product after the approved product has been ordered. What should the contractor do?

When more than 5 gallons of flammable liquid are in use, a 10B extinguisher must be within how many feet?

A floor under construction has 7,800 sf of protected building area. Using one 2A extinguisher per 3,000 sf or major fraction, how many extinguishers are required before travel-distance checks?

In the supplied general-requirements drawing index, which entry corresponds to drawing G-002?

A crew works 20 overtime hours with a $36/hr base rate and time-and-one-half premium. What is the overtime labor cost?

A work package has earned value of $410,000 and actual cost of $435,000. What is the cost variance?

Field office rental totals $18,900 for 9 months. What is the monthly cost?

A cleanup crew can complete 700 sf of final sweep and debris removal per day. How many full workdays are needed for 4,200 sf?

A temporary protection task uses 5 workers for 8 hours per day over 4 days. How many labor-hours should be recorded?

An activity has an early start of day 14 and a late start of day 18. What total float is indicated by those dates?

A punch crew has closed 360 items from a 480-item quality log. What percent complete is the punch effort?

A closeout team can verify 12 rooms per day. If 96 rooms remain on the final inspection list, how many days are needed?

An activity has early start day 12 and late start day 21. What total float is shown?

A room closeout team verifies 10 rooms per day. If 104 rooms remain, how many whole days are required?

A CPM activity has early start at the beginning of working day 16 and late start at the beginning of working day 29 on the same calendar. What total float is shown?

A crew installs 420 linear ft of layout control in 7 hours. What average production rate did the crew achieve?

A room closeout team verifies 10 rooms per day. If 248 rooms remain, how many whole days are required?

A crew has 960 units remaining and averages 120 units per day. How many workdays are needed?

A task requires 288 labor-hours and must be completed in 3 days with 8-hour shifts. How many workers are needed?

A work package has 750 units complete out of 1,250 planned units. What percent complete is it?

An activity was planned to finish on day 42 but actually finished on day 47. What is the finish variance?

A recovery plan adds 3 workers for 5 days at 8 hours per day. How many added labor-hours are planned?

Out of 500 inspected units, 35 require rework. What is the rework percentage?

Three submittals were returned in 6, 9, and 12 days. What was the average turnaround?

A lift is used productively for 5.5 hours during an 8-hour shift. What is the utilization?

A quality check accepts 46 of 50 rooms on first inspection. What is the first-pass yield?

A project logged 2 DART cases and 80,000 labor-hours. What is the DART rate using the 200,000-hour base?

A site recorded 12 near misses over 60,000 labor-hours. Using a 200,000-hour base, what near-miss rate is reported?

A project has a $1,200,000 BAC and a CPI of 0.80. Using BAC/CPI, what is the estimate at completion?

A team orders 5,300 units to install 5,000 units. What waste factor is included?

Using the dimensions shown for the stabilized construction entrance, what is the plan area?

For a quantity exercise, an excavation has actual vertical-sided dimensions of 180 ft long, 3 ft wide and 7 ft deep. Excluding swell and over-excavation, what in-place volume is excavated?

A 120 ft long Type C trench is cut with a 4 ft bottom width and a 6 ft depth. If side slopes are 1-1/2 horizontal to 1 vertical, what excavation volume is closest?

A storm pipe run needs 240 ft of bedding, 4 ft wide and 6 in. thick. Including a 10 percent ordering allowance, how many cubic yards of bedding aggregate are needed?

A mass excavation produces 1,180 loose cubic yards of material for off-site disposal. End-dump trucks can haul 18 loose cubic yards per trip. What truck count is required?

A staging pad is 160 ft by 90 ft and needs 8 in. of compacted aggregate base. Using 1.6 tons per cubic yard, what aggregate tonnage is closest?

Silt fence is needed on three sides of a 220 ft by 140 ft disturbed pad; the remaining 220 ft side is protected by a stabilized construction entrance. Adding 5 percent for overlaps and returns, what fence length should be ordered?

A dewatering pump discharges 75 gallons per minute for 3 hours. How many gallons are discharged?

Bank excavation is 1,035 cubic yards and soil swells 20 percent for hauling. What loose volume is hauled?

A fill area needs 840 compacted cubic yards. If shrinkage from loose to compacted volume is 15 percent, what loose volume is needed?

A trench run is 200 ft long and requires bedding 4 ft wide by 0.5 ft deep. How many cubic yards of bedding are needed?

A fill area needs 960 compacted cubic yards. If shrinkage from loose to compacted volume is 15 percent, what loose volume is needed?

Topsoil is stripped 6 in. deep over 12,000 sq ft. What volume is stripped?

Bank excavation is 2835 cy and soil swells 20 percent for hauling. What loose volume is hauled?

A fill area needs 2,040 compacted cubic yards. If shrinkage from loose to compacted volume is 15 percent, what loose volume is needed?

A utility trench is 240 ft long, 3 ft wide, and 5 ft deep. What is the excavation volume in cubic yards?

Pipe bedding is 2.5 ft wide, 0.5 ft deep, and 300 ft long. What bedding volume is required in cubic yards?

Excavated soil is 220 bank cubic yards and swells 18%. What loose volume must be hauled?

A compacted fill requires 1,500 cubic yards in place. Borrow material shrinks 12% from loose to compacted. How many loose cubic yards are needed?

A job must haul 312 loose cubic yards and each truck carries 12 loose cubic yards. How many full truck trips are needed?

A grading area has 2,850 cubic yards of cut and 3,120 cubic yards of fill required. What is the net import before shrink/swell?

A roughly conical stockpile has a 30 ft diameter and 10 ft height. Using V = 1/3 x pi x r^2 x h, what is the approximate volume in cubic yards?

Using the dimensions on the L-shaped laydown plan, what is the net plan area?

Using the staging pad dimensions shown, what is the plan area of the pad?

Using the dimensions shown, what is the net area of the L-shaped stockpile pad?

What net plan area is shown for the L-shaped washout access pad?

From the sediment berm plan, what is the total centerline length of the four shown segments?

Using the dimensions shown, what is the plan area of the temporary crane mat?

What plan area is shown for the rectangular equipment staging pad?

What usable crane-pad area remains after subtracting the no-load zone shown?

A 44 ft by 28 ft slab will be placed 5 in. thick. Including 6 percent waste, how many cubic yards should be ordered to the nearest tenth?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

The testing agency molds 6 by 12 in. cylinders from one concrete sample for a normal compressive strength test. ACI 318 defines the test result as what?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

On the supplied schematic practice drawing (S-741), what is the sum of the three printed chain dimensions? Use the dimension labels rather than scaling the sloping graphic.

Using the slab panel dimensions and 9 in. thickness, what concrete volume is shown?

How many dowel bars are shown along the 26 ft footing run at 8 in. on center, counting both ends?

Before a slab-on-grade pour, the subgrade proof-roll shows rutting and standing water in two bays. The concrete trucks are already on the way. Which field decision protects slab performance?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the footing step centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the slab pour bay, what is the plan area?

A 4000 psi normalweight concrete mix is being evaluated from standard strength tests. Which ACI 318 result set satisfies the acceptance rule for compressive strength?

The structural drawings specify f'c but do not name a different test age. For standard-cured cylinders used to verify f'c, the default ACI test age is which one?

A wall form has tight reinforcement, and the concrete supplier asks for the maximum nominal aggregate size allowed by ACI proportioning limits. Which set of limits governs?

The reinforcing submittal shows No. 4 stirrup hooks for a beam. For a No. 4 stirrup or tie bend, which minimum inside bend diameter is the ACI table value?

A continuous footing is 120 ft long, 24 in. wide, and 12 in. deep. With a 5 percent ordering allowance, what concrete quantity should be carried?

A cast-in-place wall is 60 ft long, 10 ft high, and 8 in. thick. Subtract one 3 ft by 7 ft door opening and one 6 ft by 4 ft window opening. What net concrete volume is closest?

Twelve square concrete columns are each 18 in. by 18 in. and 12 ft tall. Ignoring waste, how much concrete is required?

A 30 ft by 24 ft slab has one layer of No. 4 bars at 12 in. on center each way, with bars placed at both edges. What total bar length is required before laps and waste?

In the retaining wall drain section, which labeled layer is immediately above WALL STEM?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair concrete section assembly?

Eighty-six dowel bars must be cut to 18 ft from 20 ft stock bars. What stock length is purchased and how many feet become cutoff waste?

A 6000 psi mixture has three consecutive strength tests of 6100 psi, 5900 psi, and 5480 psi. Which evaluation is correct under ACI strength acceptance?

A mat foundation pour requires 76 cubic yards after waste has already been included. Ready-mix trucks can legally deliver 9.5 cubic yards each to this site. How many trucks are needed?

A straight grade beam is 80 ft long and 18 in. deep. Only the two vertical side faces are formed. What contact form area is required?

A crew uses the common quality-concrete rule of thumb that contraction-joint spacing in feet should be about 24 to 30 times slab thickness in inches. For a 5 in. slab, what range results?

Nineteen steel deck sheets each cover 31 sq ft. What total coverage is available before waste?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the base plate, what is the plan area?

What net steel grating area remains after the access hatch opening is deducted?

A base plate uses 4 anchor rods. If 18 columns use the same base plate, how many anchor rods are required?

A steel joist seat is 3/8 in. low and an approved shim pack will correct the seat elevation. What shim thickness is needed?

A steel stair rises 9 ft floor-to-floor with 6 in. risers. How many risers are required?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the stair guard panel assembly?

What is mill scale on structural steel?

A forklift bends a joist top chord before erection. The foreman proposes field-straightening and adding a small weld plate without an RFI. What should happen?

In the beam connection section, which labeled layer is immediately above BOLT GROUP?

In the beam connection section, which labeled layer is immediately above SHEAR PLATE?

An ironworker crosses an unprotected beam edge 18 ft above the next lower level, and the work is not connector work or initial decking in a controlled decking zone. What fall-protection trigger applies?

A metal deck crew establishes a controlled decking zone while installing initial deck panels 24 ft above the lower level. What is the maximum CDZ size from any leading edge?

Inside a controlled decking zone, the foreman tracks panels that have been laid but not finally secured. What OSHA cap applies to unsecured decking in the CDZ?

A perimeter column is being fabricated for a multistory steel frame. How far must it normally extend above the finished floor so perimeter safety cables can be installed before the next tier?

A K-series open-web steel joist is seated on its support. Which minimum OSHA end attachment is acceptable for each end of that joist?

A roof bay is 120 ft long, and open-web joists are spaced at 5 ft on center along that length with a joist on both end lines. What joist count fits the bay?

A roof needs 22,500 sf of metal deck coverage. Each sheet covers 3 ft by 20 ft, and the order includes 5 percent for laps, cuts, and damage. What sheet count should be ordered?

A deck fastening plan shows 18 support lines. At each support line, 32 puddle welds are required across the deck run. What field weld count is shown?

Thirty-six shear-tab beam connections each require four bolts. The bolt order carries an 8 percent spare allowance. What order quantity should be rounded up for the field?

A base plate is 3/4 in. thick, 18 in. wide, and 24 in. long. Using steel at 490 lb/cf, what is the approximate plate weight?

A composite beam line is 84 ft long. Studs are laid out at 12 in. on center, with a stud at both ends of the run. What stud count is required?

A row of joist bridging crosses 16 joists spaced 5 ft on center. Two identical rows are required, and the order includes 10 percent extra for cuts. What bridging length should be carried?

During column setting, a base plate rocks because the shim pack is missing at one corner. The crane is still holding the column. What is the best field action?

A tank contains 180 gallons of water. Using 8.34 lb/gal, what is the water weight?

A duct has 3 sq ft of area and air velocity is 720 fpm. What airflow is carried?

A rooftop unit is rated at 6 tons of cooling. What capacity is that in Btu/h?

A condensate drain must slope 1/8 in. per ft for 64 ft. What total fall is required?

A pump schedule lists a motor in horsepower, but the electrical coordination table uses watts. Which conversion should be recognized for one horsepower?

A hydronic piping flush calculation converts pipe volume from cubic feet to gallons. Which conversion should be used for water volume?

A water-filled tank load is checked before it is placed on a housekeeping pad. What weight per gallon should be used for water?

A pump submittal converts pressure to feet of water head. Approximately how many feet of water head equal 1 psi?

A 2 in. horizontal sanitary branch is laid out in a ceiling space. Which minimum slope is commonly required for small horizontal drainage piping?

A plumbing rough-in inspection checks fixture trap seals. What common water-seal range is used for fixture traps?

A mechanical room is 40 ft by 30 ft by 12 ft high. If temporary exhaust is set for 6 air changes per hour, what exhaust rate is required?

A hydronic piping scope has 28 straight pipe pieces, each 20 ft long. The insulation order includes 5 percent for cuts and fittings. What insulation length should be carried?

A toilet room rough-in is checked before partitions are ordered. What minimum clear space in front of a water closet is commonly used for general plumbing layout?

A sanitary rough-in for a floor-mounted water closet is coordinated with the underground plumber. Which minimum drain size is commonly used for the water closet branch?

A commercial lavatory rough-in is being checked against the fixture schedule. Which trap size is commonly associated with a lavatory?

A shower drain is roughed in before the waterproofing inspection. Which fixture trap size is commonly used for a shower?

A rectangular supply duct is 24 in. by 12 in. inside and carries air at 800 fpm. What airflow is carried by that duct?

A hydronic pump must overcome 54 psi of pressure drop. Using 2.31 ft of water per psi, what pump head is closest?

A flushing plan includes 300 ft of pipe with a 2 in. inside diameter. Using 7.48 gal/cf, what water volume is inside the pipe?

A condensate drain runs 72 ft to a floor sink at a required slope of 1/8 in. per ft. What total fall is needed?

A temporary water tank contains 1,250 gallons during a pressure test. Using 8.34 lb/gal, what water weight should be considered?

What heat-transfer rate equals one ton of cooling?

A fire damper is installed above a hard ceiling with no access panel. What should be corrected?

A plumber finds that a sanitary pipe sleeve through a rated wall was omitted before the wall was closed. The crew proposes core drilling and leaving the annular space open. What should the superintendent require?

What does HVAC testing, adjusting, and balancing verify?

A storm drain pipe is laid directly on large rock fragments in the trench bottom. The crew wants to backfill immediately because the slope is correct. What is the concern?

In HVAC closeout, what does TAB mean?

Why might acoustic duct liner be specified inside an HVAC duct?

Domestic water piping is insulated before the pressure test is witnessed. What quality step is missing?

A plumbing vent termination is located where intake air can draw sewer gas into the building. What should be done?

A wood deck surface has 320 sf of coverage. Boards have a 5-1/2 in. actual face width, and the order includes an 8 percent cutting allowance. What linear footage is closest?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the roof sheathing zone, what is the plan area?

What net roof-cricket sheathing area is shown after the skylight opening is deducted?

A single row of solid blocking is installed between 17 floor joists. Each block is cut 14-1/2 in. long. What total block length is required?

A shear wall top plate line is 48 ft long. Nails are placed at 6 in. on center along that line, with a nail at both ends. What nail count is required along the line?

A gypsum board scope requires 180 sheets before waste. With 7 percent waste, how many sheets should be carried?

A wall board order contains 90 gypsum panels, and each panel requires 32 screws. What screw count is carried?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the wall bracing panel assembly?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the wall bracing panel assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the wall bracing panel assembly?

What is the total length of the floor joist span centerline shown on the drawing?

What does temporary truss bracing control during erection?

A temporary brace detail calls for 10d common nails. What length matches a common 10d nail?

A combustible concealed wall cavity is being framed in wood construction. Under the IBC fireblocking rule, what maximum vertical and horizontal interval is used within concealed spaces?

A wood guard is installed at an elevated floor edge in a commercial building. What minimum guard height is generally required by the IBC?

A straight 32 ft partition has studs at 16 in. on center, with a stud at each end and no openings. What stud count should be carried for the run?

A beam infill package includes twenty-four nominal 2x10 members, each 16 ft long. Using board-foot measure, what lumber quantity is represented?

A simple roof rafter has a horizontal run of 12 ft and a rise of 5 ft from plate to ridge. Ignoring overhang and ridge deductions, what rafter length follows from the right triangle?

A stair must rise 126 in. floor-to-floor. Using a maximum riser height of 7 in., what riser count is required?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the wall bracing panel assembly?

In the ledger flashing section, which labeled layer is immediately above LEDGER BOARD?

In the ledger flashing section, which labeled layer is immediately above WRB?

What is solid blocking between wood joists primarily used to do?

A reroof area requires 14,720 sf of rigid insulation. Boards are 4 ft by 8 ft, and the order includes 5 percent waste. How many boards are needed?

A gable roof covers a 60 ft by 40 ft rectangular plan. The slope factor for the 6:12 roof is 1.118. Before waste, how many roofing squares are needed?

A cricket drains 36 ft from its high point to a roof drain at a taper of 1/4 in. per foot. What thickness change occurs over that run?

An EIFS elevation is 74 ft wide and 22 ft high. Deduct six windows, each 4 ft by 5 ft. With no waste added yet, what net EIFS area is closest?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the waterproofing membrane panel, what is the plan area?

What net waterproofing area is shown after the pipe-box opening is deducted?

Parapet coping is needed around a rectangular roof that is 180 ft by 96 ft. Two 12 ft equipment-screen gaps are excluded. What coping length is required before waste?

A sealant subcontractor prices 1,260 lf of control joints. The bid includes 8 percent extra for mockups, corners, and waste. What linear footage should be carried?

A corridor needs resilient base on two 84-ft walls. How many linear feet of base are required before waste?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

A low-slope roof takeoff measures 18,400 sf of membrane field area. The estimator adds 7 percent for laps, perimeter waste, and detailing. What order area should be carried?

A roof drain is 44 ft from a high point, and tapered insulation is set at 1/4 in. per foot. What elevation drop should the cricket provide?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

In an area where ice dams are a code concern, how far must the roof ice barrier extend into the building under the IBC roof-underlayment rule?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the flashing upturn assembly?

In the parapet section, which labeled layer is immediately above CLEAT?

In the parapet section, which labeled layer is immediately above COVER BOARD?

A liquid-applied roof covering is specified on a small low-slope roof area. Which IBC minimum slope should be verified?

A continuous steel shelf angle passes through exterior insulation and creates a cold line on the interior finish. What building-science term describes that condition?

A wall cladding crew starts above a low roof before the base flashing and counterflashing are installed. Water will shed from the wall onto that roof edge. What is the best correction?

A roofing estimate is organized in squares rather than square feet. In roofing measurement, how much roof area is one square?

A masonry backup wall receives insulation and veneer, but the through-wall flashing at a shelf angle is omitted. What is the moisture-control concern?

An architect specifies asphalt shingles on a low-slope canopy. What minimum roof slope does the IBC allow for asphalt shingles before special product approvals?

A cedar wood shingle roof is shown on a small entry roof. What minimum slope should be checked under the IBC wood-shingle provisions?

On the finish plan, locate room R358; then use the finish schedule. What remarks is listed?

A finish wall area is 1,520 sq ft and paint covers 380 sq ft per gallon. How many gallons are needed for one coat before waste?

A drywall scope has 28 outside corners, each 9 ft high. Corner bead is ordered in 10 ft sticks with no splicing planned. What stick count is needed?

A gypsum board level has 1,420 lf of board joints measured from the layout. The foreman adds 10 percent for corners, repairs, and waste. What tape length should be carried?

A 2 ft by 2 ft acoustical ceiling covers 1,760 sf. The order includes 5 percent extra attic stock. What tile count should be ordered?

A repaint scope has 7,200 sf of wall surface and requires two finish coats. The coating covers 360 sf per gallon per coat. What paint quantity is required before rounding for pails?

A rectangular room is 42 ft by 28 ft. Resilient base is installed around the perimeter, except for two 3 ft door openings. Adding 5 percent waste, what linear footage should be carried?

A porcelain tile floor measures 1,125 sf after cabinet deductions. The installer orders 12 percent extra for cuts and breakage. What order area is required?

A wall board order contains 96 gypsum panels, and the crew estimates 32 screws per 4 ft by 8 ft panel. What screw count is carried?

A room ceiling is 24 ft by 36 ft and uses 2 ft by 4 ft acoustical tiles. How many full tiles cover the area before waste?

On the finish plan, locate room R321; then use the finish schedule. What floor finish is listed?

A tenant wall package has 2,880 sf of gypsum board surface. Standard 4 ft by 8 ft panels are used, and the order includes 7 percent waste. What sheet count should be ordered?

On the finish plan, locate room R326; then use the finish schedule. What wall finish is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R364; then use the finish schedule. What wall finish is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R331; then use the finish schedule. What ceiling is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R369; then use the finish schedule. What ceiling is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R332; then use the finish schedule. What base is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R374; then use the finish schedule. What base is listed?

A corridor finish is specified as IBC Class B interior wall finish. Which flame-spread index range corresponds to Class B?

On the finish plan, locate room R348; then use the finish schedule. What ceiling is listed?

On the finish plan, locate room R315; then use the finish schedule. What base is listed?

The fire-resistance-rated wall detail calls for Type X gypsum board. Which board thickness is commonly associated with Type X wallboard in rated assemblies?

On the finish plan, locate room R353; then use the finish schedule. What base is listed?

A finish schedule lists an interior wall finish as Class A under the IBC flame-spread classification. What flame-spread index range defines Class A?

A stack of gypsum board is soaked by a roof leak before installation. The foreman wants to use the softened sheets in a concealed storage room. What should the superintendent require?

Gypsum board is being screw-attached to wood studs on a wall, away from panel edges. What maximum field screw spacing is commonly used for wall panels?

A long gypsum board corridor ceiling has no relief in a continuous plane. What maximum control-joint spacing is commonly used for large gypsum board expanses?

A ceiling installer ties hanger wire to sprinkler pipe because it is close to the grid line. The ceiling is not designed to be supported from that pipe. What is the correct response?

What does NRC describe for an acoustical ceiling panel?

What is the main purpose of primer on new gypsum board before finish paint?

Using the dimensions shown for the grout pour cell zone, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the control joint spacing centerline shown on the drawing?

Using the dimensions shown for the grout pour cell zone, what is the plan area?

Using the dimensions shown for the grout pour cell zone, what is the plan area?

What is the total length of the control joint spacing centerline shown on the drawing?

A veneer shelf angle run needs 96 ft of flashing. The crew expects eight field splices, each with a 6 in. lap. What total flashing length should be supplied?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the CMU wall lift assembly?

A 40 ft by 12 ft CMU wall is built with nominal 8 by 16 face units. Using 1.125 units per square foot and a 5 percent ordering allowance, what unit count should be ordered?

A single-wythe modular brick screen wall has 300 sf of net face area. Using 6.75 modular brick per square foot and adding 5 percent for cuts and breakage, what brick quantity is closest?

A masonry opening head is detailed at 7 ft 4 in. above the slab. Using standard 8 in. CMU coursing, how many full courses reach that height?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the CMU wall lift assembly?

What total vertical dimension is shown for the CMU wall lift assembly?

A submittal lists standard 8 by 8 by 16 concrete masonry units. What actual unit size should the estimator use when allowing for a 3/8 in. mortar joint?

A reinforced CMU wall is scheduled for fine grout. Which slump range is commonly specified for masonry grout so it can flow around bars and into cells?

In the masonry cavity wall section, which labeled layer is immediately above GROUTED CELL?

In the masonry cavity wall section, which labeled layer is immediately above AIR SPACE?

A CMU crew is scheduled during freezing weather, and the forecast shows temperatures dropping below freezing overnight. Which plan is appropriate for the masonry work?

An anchored brick veneer wall uses adjustable metal anchors. Under the IBC/TMS prescriptive spacing rule, each veneer anchor may support no more than what wall area?

What is the total length of the control joint spacing centerline shown on the drawing?

An interior nonloadbearing masonry repair is specified with Type O mortar. Which 28-day compressive strength value matches Type O in the common mortar property table?

The mason is laying a running-bond CMU wall without a special joint profile. Which nominal bed and head joint thickness is the standard layout assumption?

A grout submittal for reinforced masonry lists compressive strength. Which minimum value is commonly required for masonry grout unless the documents require more?

Brick veneer flashing is installed above a shelf angle. What maximum on-center spacing is commonly used for open head-joint weeps under the IBC masonry veneer provisions?

A 50 ft by 12 ft CMU wall has one 6 ft by 7 ft door opening and two 4 ft by 4 ft window openings. Using 1.125 units per square foot plus a 5 percent allowance, what CMU order is closest?

Before a reinforced CMU wall is grouted, inspection finds mortar droppings bridging several reinforced cells near the base. What is the correct quality action?

Brick veneer has been laid above a shelf angle before anyone installed the specified flashing and weeps. Water will drain toward that shelf angle. What is the proper response?

In multi-wythe masonry, what is a collar joint?

White powdery deposits appear on a brick veneer several weeks after wet weather. Which term describes that condition?

In the masonry cavity wall section, which labeled layer is immediately above CMU BACKUP?

Six pilaster grout spaces each have a net grout cross-section of 8 in. by 8 in. after all deductions, constant for a height of 10 ft. Ignoring waste, what total grout volume is required, rounded to two decimals?

A storefront opening is 48 ft wide and 10 ft high. Deduct two aluminum entrance doors, each 3 ft by 7 ft, from the glazed area. What net glass area remains?

Two 36 in. wide hinged doors in series both swing into the vestibule space between them. Using the accessible separation rule, what minimum clear distance is required between the doors?

A curtain wall repair has 18 vertical joints at 12 ft each and 9 horizontal joints at 28 ft each. What total sealant joint length is measured before waste?

A tenant floor has 14 single-leaf office doors, 3 pair doors, and 2 single-leaf restroom doors. Counting one hardware set per active leaf, how many hardware sets are needed?

A hotel elevation has 11 identical punched windows per floor for 6 floors. The owner adds 5 percent attic stock for future replacement. What window count should be ordered?

A tempered glass panel is 5 ft by 9 ft. The supplier weight is 6.5 lb per square foot. What is the panel weight before hardware?

A 36 in. nominal swinging door is installed in a frame where stops and door thickness reduce clear opening by 3-1/2 in. when open 90 degrees. What clear opening remains?

On the door plan, locate door D83; then use the door schedule. What rating is listed?

From the door schedule, which hardware set is assigned to door D470?

From the door schedule, what frame material is scheduled for door D480?

On the window plan, locate window W84; then use the window schedule. What frame is listed?

On the window plan, locate window W131; then use the window schedule. What opening is listed?

What frame material is listed for door D303 in the door schedule?

On the window plan, locate window W153; then use the window schedule. What sill ht. is listed?

On the window plan, locate window W113; then use the window schedule. What sill ht. is listed?

An interior non-fire-rated swinging door on an accessible route is measured with a door-force gauge. What maximum opening force should be used?

A new accessible entrance door has a raised threshold. What maximum threshold height is allowed in new construction before considering existing-threshold exceptions?

Lever hardware on an accessible door is being laid out before hollow-metal frames are set. What mounting height range applies to operable door hardware?

A vision lite is provided in an accessible door for viewing. What maximum height applies to the bottom of at least one vision panel?

Two hinged doors occur in series in an accessible vestibule, and both swing into the space between them. What minimum separation rule is checked between the doors?

A fixed glass sidelight is next to a swinging door. Its nearest vertical edge is within 24 in. of the door in the closed position, and the bottom exposed edge is below 60 in. above the floor. What does IBC 2406 generally require?

A subcontractor installs round knobs on a door required to be accessible. The knobs are at the right height but require tight grasping and wrist twisting. What is the proper correction?

What is the purpose of a thermal break in an aluminum window or storefront frame?

What makes an insulating glass unit different from a single monolithic pane?

From the door schedule, what fire-protection rating is scheduled for door D113?

From the door schedule, what hardware set is assigned to door D207?

Using the window schedule, what glazing type is specified for window W22?

From the window schedule, what rough opening is shown for window W33?

From the window schedule, what sill height is scheduled for W43?

From the door schedule, what size is shown for door D440?

An outlet box contains multiple conductors, splices, and a device, and the electrician is trying to force the device into the box. What is the construction-manager concern?

A 45 kVA single-phase transformer is served at 240 V. Ignoring losses, what primary current is drawn at full load?

A long branch-circuit homerun is upsized with larger conductors to reduce voltage drop. What is the best statement about the breaker serving that circuit?

Site backfill is scheduled before the service grounding electrode work has been inspected. What should the superintendent coordinate?

A rooftop unit motor has a running amp value on the equipment submittal and a much higher starting demand. What should the GC coordinate before rough-in?

An estimator is reviewing receptacle loads for a small office tenant improvement. What is the best source for the allowance used in the load calculation?

A conduit sleeve through a rated corridor wall is installed, but the annular space is left open above the ceiling. What correction belongs on the punch list?

In the equipment grounding diagram section, which labeled layer is immediately above GROUND BUS?

A new electrical room layout shows a casework run proposed beside a panelboard. What is the best coordination action before releasing the wall and casework layout?

A lighting panel is planned on a wall that will receive gypsum board and tenant storage shelving nearby. What should be verified before the framing inspection is signed off?

A mechanical pipe route is shown crossing low in front of a switchboard service area. What coordination response best protects the electrical installation?

At device trim, several conductors in an outlet box are too short to terminate without pulling tension on the splice. What is the correct quality response?

Pulling conductors into a panel without a bushing leaves visible cuts in the insulation at the raceway entry. What is the correct quality response?

A drywall lid is about to conceal junction boxes that contain splices, and no access panels are shown. What should be coordinated before the ceiling is closed?

A feeder termination has no torque record, and the installer used an adjustable wrench by feel. What should be required before acceptance?

In an electrical distribution system, what is the main purpose of bonding metal raceways and equipment enclosures?

In a normal branch circuit downstream of the service equipment, how do the neutral conductor and equipment grounding conductor differ?

From the panel schedule, what breaker is shown for circuit C5?

From the panel schedule, what breaker size is shown for circuit C13?

From the panel schedule, what wire size is shown for circuit H7?

On the supplied schematic practice drawing (E-720), what is the sum of the three printed chain dimensions? Use the dimension labels rather than scaling the sloping graphic.

Why might a design require selective coordination between an upstream feeder breaker and a downstream branch breaker?

During turnover, a panel directory still lists several breakers as spare even though they feed occupied tenant circuits. What is the best closeout correction?

During overhead rough-in, EMT runs above an accessible ceiling are visibly sagging and tied to ceiling grid wires. What should the superintendent require?

A small branch circuit trips during startup, and a subcontractor proposes installing a larger breaker without checking the conductors or equipment. What should the superintendent understand?

A remote piece of equipment is served by a long branch circuit, and the owner reports low-voltage sensitivity. What electrical design issue should be coordinated?

A mechanical room has several motors served from the same electrical distribution equipment. What information is most important for feeder/load coordination?

What hazard is a ground-fault circuit interrupter primarily intended to reduce?

On the electrical plan, locate circuit tag C37; then read the panel schedule. What wire is shown?

On the electrical plan, locate circuit tag C39; then read the panel schedule. What breaker is shown?