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An appraiser develops two DCF models for the same industrial warehouse: Model A uses a 6.0% yield rate and a 5.5% terminal cap rate; Model B uses a 7.2% yield rate and a 6.8% terminal cap rate. All other assumptions (NOI projections, holding period, reversion timing) are identical. Assuming both models are properly constructed, what is the most likely effect on the indicated value?

Correct Answer

C) Model A will indicate a higher value because a lower yield rate increases the present value of all future cash flows.

Present value is inversely related to the discount (yield) rate: a lower yield rate increases the present value of all future cash flows (NOI and reversion). While terminal cap rate affects the *size* of the reversion (higher cap rate → lower reversion), the dominant influence on total present value in most DCF models is the yield rate applied to discounting. Here, Model A’s 6.0% yield rate (vs. 7.2% in Model B) will produce higher present values for every cash flow, outweighing the effect of its slightly lower terminal cap rate. USPAP and appraisal theory do not require yield rate > terminal cap rate; the relationship depends on growth expectations and risk. Option C correctly identifies the primary driver of value difference.

Answer Options
A
Model A will indicate a higher value because its yield rate is lower than its terminal cap rate.
B
Model B will indicate a higher value because its terminal cap rate is higher.
C
Model A will indicate a higher value because a lower yield rate increases the present value of all future cash flows.
D
Both models will indicate identical values since the spread between yield and terminal cap rate is the same (0.5%).

Why This Is the Correct Answer

Present value is inversely related to the discount (yield) rate: a lower yield rate increases the present value of all future cash flows (NOI and reversion). While terminal cap rate affects the *size* of the reversion (higher cap rate → lower reversion), the dominant influence on total present value in most DCF models is the yield rate applied to discounting. Here, Model A’s 6.0% yield rate (vs. 7.2% in Model B) will produce higher present values for every cash flow, outweighing the effect of its slightly lower terminal cap rate. USPAP and appraisal theory do not require yield rate > terminal cap rate; the relationship depends on growth expectations and risk. Option C correctly identifies the primary driver of value difference.

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