An overall rate extracted from a sale whose NOI excluded reserves, applied to a subject NOI that includes them, will:
Correct Answer
B) Understate the subject's value
Why this is correct: If the comparable's NOI excluded reserves (a higher NOI), the extracted overall capitalization rate (OAR) is higher. Applying that higher rate to the subject's lower NOI (which includes reserves) yields a lower value: Value = NOI / OAR. Why the other choices are wrong: "Overstate the subject's value" would occur if the comparable's rate were lower. "Produce the correct value either way" is false; inconsistent NOI definitions distort value. "Have no effect on the conclusion" is incorrect; the rate and NOI must align. Exam tip: Ensure NOI definitions match between subject and comparables when extracting or applying rates.
Why This Is the Correct Answer
Excluding reserves inflates the comparable's income and therefore the extracted rate, and applying that higher rate to a subject income reduced by reserves divides a smaller number by a larger one, understating value.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
Option A: Overstate the subject's value
Both effects push value downward. A higher rate and a lower income cannot overstate the result.
Option C: Produce the correct value either way
The inconsistency produces a systematic error, not a correct answer by either route.
Option D: Have no effect on the conclusion
The effect is real and can be substantial, since reserves of a few percent of income compound into a meaningful value difference.
Same Recipe on Both Sides
Same Recipe on Both Sides. Reserves out inflates the rate; reserves in shrinks the income. Together they cut value twice.
How to use: Recompute one side to match before dividing. Which side you fix does not matter; consistency does.
Exam Tip
Management fees are the other frequent mismatch, particularly where an owner-managed comparable reports no management expense.
Common Mistakes to Avoid
- -Extracting rates without checking expense treatment
- -Reversing the direction of the resulting error
- -Overlooking management fee inconsistency
Concept Deep Dive
Analysis
A capitalization rate and the income it is applied to must be computed the same way, and reserves for replacement are the classic place where that consistency breaks. Excluding reserves from the comparable's net operating income makes that income larger, and since the rate is income divided by price, a larger income produces a higher extracted rate. Apply that inflated rate to a subject income that has been reduced by reserves, and both moves push the same direction: a smaller numerator divided by a larger denominator. The result understates value, and the error can be substantial — reserves of a few percent of income compound into a meaningful value difference. The fix is to recompute one side so both match, which usually means adding the reserves back into the comparable's income before extracting the rate, or removing them from the subject's. Either works; what fails is leaving them inconsistent. The same discipline applies to management fees and to any expense treated differently across the two sides.
Background Knowledge
A capitalization rate must be applied to income computed on the same basis as the income from which the rate was extracted. Differences in reserve, management fee or other expense treatment produce systematic value errors.
Real-World Application
An appraiser adds reserves back into three comparables' income before extracting rates, so the derived rate matches the subject's reserve-inclusive income.
More Income Approach Questions
In a percentage lease, rent is commonly structured as:
In a DCF, what is the reversion?
Potential gross income differs from effective gross income in that PGI assumes:
The reversion in a discounted cash flow model represents:
Building A (new, credit tenant, 20-year lease) and Building B (older, month-to-month tenants) sell the same week. Their cap rates should differ how?
Replacement reserves cover which kind of expenditure?
What is the primary distinction, for appraisal purposes, between 'vacancy loss' and 'collection loss'?
An appraiser is analyzing a mixed-use property with retail and office components. The retail segment has a potential gross income of $180,000 with a market vacancy of 8%. The office segment has a potential gross income of $120,000 with a market vacancy of 12%. What is the overall effective gross income for the property?
The mortgage constant represents:
Applying a GRM of 164 to a subject renting at $2,650 monthly indicates a value of:
People Also Study
Real Estate Market
13.6% of exam
Property Description
11.8% of exam
Land or Site Valuation
4.5% of exam
Sales Comparison Approach
16.4% of exam
Cost Approach
13.6% of exam
