Why does the GRM technique skip vacancy and expenses entirely?
Correct Answer
C) The multiplier was extracted from sales the same way, embedding costs
Why this is correct: The Gross Rent Multiplier (GRM) is calculated as Sale Price ÷ Gross Scheduled Income. The multiplier is derived from market sales data, so the typical market expenses and vacancy rates for similar properties are already embedded within it. This embedded assumption is the reason the technique skips explicit vacancy and expense deductions. Why the other choices are wrong: Gross rent does not legally define value; it's a market-derived indicator. Small properties do have vacancies. Expenses being the tenant's problem is not a universal rule and ignores owner-paid expenses. Exam tip: GRM's strength (simplicity) is also its weakness—it assumes typical expenses. It fails for properties with atypical costs.
Why This Is the Correct Answer
Why this is correct: The Gross Rent Multiplier (GRM) is calculated as Sale Price ÷ Gross Scheduled Income. The multiplier is derived from market sales data, so the typical market expenses and vacancy rates for similar properties are already embedded within it. This embedded assumption is the reason the technique skips explicit vacancy and expense deductions. Why the other choices are wrong: Gross rent does not legally define value; it's a market-derived indicator. Small properties do have vacancies. Expenses being the tenant's problem is not a universal rule and ignores owner-paid expenses. Exam tip: GRM's strength (simplicity) is also its weakness—it assumes typical expenses. It fails for properties with atypical costs.
More Income Approach Questions
In a percentage lease, rent is commonly structured as:
In a DCF, what is the reversion?
Potential gross income differs from effective gross income in that PGI assumes:
The reversion in a discounted cash flow model represents:
Building A (new, credit tenant, 20-year lease) and Building B (older, month-to-month tenants) sell the same week. Their cap rates should differ how?
An overall rate extracted from a sale whose NOI excluded reserves, applied to a subject NOI that includes them, will:
Replacement reserves cover which kind of expenditure?
What is the primary distinction, for appraisal purposes, between 'vacancy loss' and 'collection loss'?
An appraiser is analyzing a mixed-use property with retail and office components. The retail segment has a potential gross income of $180,000 with a market vacancy of 8%. The office segment has a potential gross income of $120,000 with a market vacancy of 12%. What is the overall effective gross income for the property?
The mortgage constant represents:
People Also Study
Real Estate Market
13.6% of exam
Property Description
11.8% of exam
Land or Site Valuation
4.5% of exam
Sales Comparison Approach
16.4% of exam
Cost Approach
13.6% of exam
Previous Question
In a discounted cash flow analysis for a commercial property, the appraiser uses a discount rate of 7.8% and a terminal capitalization rate of 6.2%. Which conclusion is supported by these rates under standard investment theory?
Next Question
Escalation clauses and expense stops in a lease matter to the income analysis because they:
