Losing a workfile before the retention period expires exposes the appraiser to discipline even if the appraisal itself was flawless, because:
Correct Answer
A) Retention is itself an enforceable duty, and the file is the proof of compliance
Why this is correct: The Record Keeping Rule is a separate, enforceable duty under USPAP. The workfile is the primary evidence that the appraisal was developed competently and ethically. Losing it before the mandatory retention period ends is a violation in itself, regardless of the quality of the original work, because compliance cannot be proven. Why the other choices are wrong: The state does not re-appraise every property annually. Lost files do not transfer liability to the client; the appraiser remains responsible. USPAP does not presume a lost file contained errors; the violation is the failure to retain the required records. Exam tip: Remember that record retention is a standalone requirement. A perfect appraisal with a missing workfile is still a compliance failure.
Why This Is the Correct Answer
Why this is correct: The Record Keeping Rule is a separate, enforceable duty under USPAP. The workfile is the primary evidence that the appraisal was developed competently and ethically. Losing it before the mandatory retention period ends is a violation in itself, regardless of the quality of the original work, because compliance cannot be proven. Why the other choices are wrong: The state does not re-appraise every property annually. Lost files do not transfer liability to the client; the appraiser remains responsible. USPAP does not presume a lost file contained errors; the violation is the failure to retain the required records. Exam tip: Remember that record retention is a standalone requirement. A perfect appraisal with a missing workfile is still a compliance failure.
More USPAP Questions
Which statement best defines a hypothetical condition under USPAP?
According to the Competency Rule, if an appraiser lacks the knowledge and experience to complete an assignment competently, which action is NOT acceptable?
An appraiser runs only the sales comparison approach on a standard tract home and omits the cost and income approaches. Under Standard 1 this is:
A value opinion for a subdivision as if fully built out two years from now is what kind of assignment, and what does it require?
A hypothetical condition differs from an extraordinary assumption in that a hypothetical condition:
An appraiser must disclose in the certification whether they have:
A client-imposed requirement — 'use only comps from our approved list' — is best described as:
Under Standard 1, when developing a real property appraisal, an appraiser must:
The certification required by Standards Rule 2-3 must be signed by:
According to Standard 1, when developing an opinion of market value, an appraiser must analyze:
People Also Study
Real Estate Market
13.6% of exam
Property Description
11.8% of exam
Land or Site Valuation
4.5% of exam
Sales Comparison Approach
16.4% of exam
Cost Approach
13.6% of exam
