An owner's expense statement shows no management fee because the owner manages personally. What does the appraiser do?
Correct Answer
D) Impute a market management fee anyway
Why this is correct: For market-based valuation, expenses must be normalized to reflect typical market costs, regardless of actual owner practices. If the owner manages personally, a market-level management fee should still be imputed (added) to the expenses to reflect what a typical buyer would incur. Why the other choices are wrong: "Accept the statement, since it reflects actual cash flow" ignores that value is based on market expectations, not idiosyncratic owner savings. "Note the saving as a benefit of the property" mischaracterizes owner labor as a property attribute. "Reduce vacancy loss to offset the difference" incorrectly links unrelated expense items. Exam tip: Always normalize expenses to market standards in the income approach, even if the owner's actual expenses differ.
Why This Is the Correct Answer
Why this is correct: For market-based valuation, expenses must be normalized to reflect typical market costs, regardless of actual owner practices. If the owner manages personally, a market-level management fee should still be imputed (added) to the expenses to reflect what a typical buyer would incur. Why the other choices are wrong: "Accept the statement, since it reflects actual cash flow" ignores that value is based on market expectations, not idiosyncratic owner savings. "Note the saving as a benefit of the property" mischaracterizes owner labor as a property attribute. "Reduce vacancy loss to offset the difference" incorrectly links unrelated expense items. Exam tip: Always normalize expenses to market standards in the income approach, even if the owner's actual expenses differ.
More income-approach Questions
In a percentage lease, rent is commonly structured as:
Escalation clauses and expense stops in a lease matter to the income analysis because they:
In a DCF, what is the reversion?
Potential gross income differs from effective gross income in that PGI assumes:
The reversion in a discounted cash flow model represents:
Two identical buildings differ only in risk: one has a single tenant on a short lease, the other five tenants on staggered terms. How do their cap rates compare?
Contract rent on a leased office is $30 per sq ft; market rent is $26. The $4 difference is called:
Building A (new, credit tenant, 20-year lease) and Building B (older, month-to-month tenants) sell the same week. Their cap rates should differ how?
An appraiser is analyzing a 15-unit apartment building. Market research indicates a 6% vacancy rate is typical for similar properties, but this property's historical vacancy has averaged 4%. The subject has experienced a 1% collection loss (uncollectible rents) over the past two years. When estimating effective gross income for the subject, what vacancy and collection loss percentage should the appraiser apply?
An overall rate extracted from a sale whose NOI excluded reserves, applied to a subject NOI that includes them, will:
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