EstatePass
Income ApproachHARD8.2% of exam

A lender underwrites a loan at a 1.25 debt coverage ratio, a 7.5% annual mortgage constant, and a 70% loan-to-value ratio. What overall capitalization rate does the debt coverage formula indicate, rounded to one decimal place?

Correct Answer

C) 6.6%

1.25×0.075×0.70×100 = 6.5625. Common errors: dividing by the coverage ratio instead of multiplying gives 4.2%; leaving out the loan-to-value ratio gives 9.4%; using the equity ratio instead of the loan-to-value ratio gives 2.8%.

Answer Options
A
2.8%
B
4.2%
C
6.6%
D
9.4%

Why This Is the Correct Answer

Option C is correct because Ro = 1.25 × 0.075 × 0.70 = 0.065625, or 6.5625%. Rounded to one decimal place, that is 6.6%.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong

Option A: 2.8%

Option A, 2.8%, comes from using the equity ratio instead of the loan-to-value ratio: 1.25 × 0.075 × 0.30 = 0.028125, or 2.8%. The formula uses the 70% loan ratio, giving 1.25 × 0.075 × 0.70 = 6.6%.

Option B: 4.2%

Option B, 4.2%, comes from dividing by the coverage ratio instead of multiplying: 0.075 × 0.70 ÷ 1.25 = 0.042, or 4.2%. The formula multiplies by 1.25, giving 6.5625%, which rounds to 6.6%.

Option D: 9.4%

Option D, 9.4%, comes from leaving out the loan-to-value ratio: 1.25 × 0.075 = 0.09375, or 9.4%. Including the 0.70 loan ratio gives 6.5625%, which rounds to 6.6%.

Multiply all three: DCR, Rm, M

The debt coverage formula is a straight product of the coverage ratio, the mortgage constant and the loan ratio. No division is involved.

How to use: Use this when a question gives a DCR, a mortgage constant and a loan-to-value ratio and asks for Ro.

Exam Tip

Use the loan-to-value ratio, not the equity ratio, in the debt coverage formula, and watch the rounding instruction.

Common Mistakes to Avoid

  • -Dividing by the debt coverage ratio
  • -Using the equity ratio in place of the loan-to-value ratio
  • -Treating the formula result as proof of a market capitalization rate

Concept Deep Dive

Analysis

This question tests the debt coverage formula for an overall rate: Ro equals the debt coverage ratio times the mortgage constant times the loan-to-value ratio. It is a straightforward multiplication of three inputs with rounding. The distractors come from dividing by the DCR, dropping the loan ratio, or using the equity ratio.

Background Knowledge

The debt coverage formula, Ro = DCR × Rm × M, derives an overall rate from lender underwriting criteria. The debt coverage ratio is NOI divided by annual debt service, and the mortgage constant is annual debt service divided by loan amount. The result reflects financing terms and is a check rather than proof of a market capitalization rate.

Real-World Application

A lender requires a 1.25 debt coverage ratio on a 70% loan with a 7.5% annual constant. An appraiser computes the implied 6.6% overall rate as a reasonableness check against rates extracted from comparable sales.

debt coverage ratiomortgage constantloan-to-valueoverall ratedebt coverage formula
Was this explanation helpful?

More Income Approach Questions

Which model describes yield capitalization of property benefits?

An appraiser is valuing a duplex. A market survey of recent duplex sales reports prices at 10.8 times potential gross income, with stabilized vacancy and credit loss of 10% of PGI and no other income. The subject's rent schedule is unavailable, but the property manager's records show collected income of $54,000 a year, in line with market rent and the 10% market loss. What value is indicated?

The subject property is a fourplex with annual EGI of $72,000 and operating expenses of $28,800. Of those expenses, $18,000 is fixed and $10,800 varies in direct proportion to EGI. The owner's annual mortgage payments are $21,000. An appraiser projects that EGI will fall 10% because of higher vacancy. What is the projected NOI?

Annual NOI available for debt service is $168,000 and total annual mortgage principal and interest debt service is $120,000. What is NOI ÷ debt service?

Annual PGI is $250,000 and combined vacancy and collection loss is explicitly 12% of that same PGI base. There is no other income. What annual EGI remains?

Annual PGI is $360,000 and combined vacancy and collection loss is explicitly 8% of that same PGI base. There is no other income. What annual EGI remains?

Annual PGI is $640,000. Combined vacancy and collection loss is 6.25% of PGI. There is no other income. What EGI remains?

An appraiser is updating a prior appraisal of a triplex with potential gross income of $60,000 and no other income. The prior appraisal used vacancy and credit loss of 5% of PGI, and a new survey of competing rentals indicates 8%. The operating expenses of $24,000 are property taxes, insurance and contract services that do not vary with occupancy, and the market overall rate remains 7.5%. By what percentages do effective gross income and indicated value decrease?

Annual potential rental income is $600,000 and vacancy loss alone is $36,000. What percentage of potential rent does that loss represent?

In the subject's market, lenders on fourplexes have lowered their typical loan-to-value ratio from 70% to 60%. The annual mortgage constant remains 5% and the equity dividend rate remains 10%. The subject's NOI has not changed. How does this affect the overall rate indicated by the band of investment and the indicated value?

People Also Study

Practice More Appraiser Questions

Access all practice questions with progress tracking and adaptive difficulty to pass your Appraiser exam.

Start Practicing