A lease that requires the tenant to pay a share of expenses above a base-year amount contains:
Correct Answer
D) An expense stop
The stipulated expense-stop clause caps the landlord’s covered expense responsibility at the stated base and allocates the defined excess share to the tenant. Actual costs, exclusions and reimbursement timing follow the contract. This is a different feature from sales-based percentage rent or a purchase refusal right.
Why This Is the Correct Answer
Option D is correct because an expense stop caps the landlord's covered expense responsibility at the stated base and passes the defined share of increases above that base to the tenant. The actual costs covered, exclusions and timing of reimbursement follow the lease contract.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
Option A: A right of first refusal
Option A, a right of first refusal, is wrong because that clause gives a party the chance to match an offer to buy or lease, not a duty to pay expenses above a base year.
Option B: A percentage rent clause
Option B, a percentage rent clause, is wrong because percentage rent ties additional rent to the tenant's sales, not to increases in operating expenses above a base amount.
Option C: A ground lease provision
Option C, a ground lease provision, is wrong because a ground lease concerns leasing land, often for long terms, and does not by itself describe a tenant paying expenses above a base-year amount.
The Landlord's Costs Stop
At the expense stop, the landlord's share of expenses stops growing and the tenant picks up the increases above the base.
How to use: Use this image to tell an expense stop apart from percentage rent and purchase rights.
Exam Tip
Link base year and excess expenses to expense stop, tenant sales to percentage rent, and matching an offer to right of first refusal.
Common Mistakes to Avoid
- -Confusing an expense stop with percentage rent
- -Assuming an expense stop makes the tenant pay all expenses
- -Ignoring expense reimbursements when projecting landlord income
Concept Deep Dive
Analysis
This question tests recognition of lease clauses that allocate operating expenses. A clause that has the tenant pay its share of expenses above a base-year amount limits the landlord's expense responsibility to that base. That feature is called an expense stop.
Background Knowledge
Leases allocate operating expenses in different ways, from gross leases where the landlord pays most costs to net leases where the tenant pays them. An expense stop sits between these, with the landlord paying expenses up to a base amount and the tenant paying the defined excess. Appraisers read these clauses to estimate expense reimbursements and the landlord's net income.
Real-World Application
An appraiser reviewing office leases finds that tenants pay their pro rata share of operating expenses above the base-year amount. The appraiser projects expense reimbursements from those clauses when estimating the landlord's effective gross income.
More Income Approach Questions
Which model describes yield capitalization of property benefits?
An appraiser is valuing a duplex. A market survey of recent duplex sales reports prices at 10.8 times potential gross income, with stabilized vacancy and credit loss of 10% of PGI and no other income. The subject's rent schedule is unavailable, but the property manager's records show collected income of $54,000 a year, in line with market rent and the 10% market loss. What value is indicated?
The subject property is a fourplex with annual EGI of $72,000 and operating expenses of $28,800. Of those expenses, $18,000 is fixed and $10,800 varies in direct proportion to EGI. The owner's annual mortgage payments are $21,000. An appraiser projects that EGI will fall 10% because of higher vacancy. What is the projected NOI?
Annual NOI available for debt service is $168,000 and total annual mortgage principal and interest debt service is $120,000. What is NOI ÷ debt service?
Annual PGI is $250,000 and combined vacancy and collection loss is explicitly 12% of that same PGI base. There is no other income. What annual EGI remains?
Annual PGI is $360,000 and combined vacancy and collection loss is explicitly 8% of that same PGI base. There is no other income. What annual EGI remains?
Annual PGI is $640,000. Combined vacancy and collection loss is 6.25% of PGI. There is no other income. What EGI remains?
An appraiser is updating a prior appraisal of a triplex with potential gross income of $60,000 and no other income. The prior appraisal used vacancy and credit loss of 5% of PGI, and a new survey of competing rentals indicates 8%. The operating expenses of $24,000 are property taxes, insurance and contract services that do not vary with occupancy, and the market overall rate remains 7.5%. By what percentages do effective gross income and indicated value decrease?
Annual potential rental income is $600,000 and vacancy loss alone is $36,000. What percentage of potential rent does that loss represent?
In the subject's market, lenders on fourplexes have lowered their typical loan-to-value ratio from 70% to 60%. The annual mortgage constant remains 5% and the equity dividend rate remains 10%. The subject's NOI has not changed. How does this affect the overall rate indicated by the band of investment and the indicated value?
People Also Study
Real Estate Market
13.6% of exam
Property Description
11.8% of exam
Land or Site Valuation
4.5% of exam
Sales Comparison Approach
16.4% of exam
Cost Approach
13.6% of exam
Previous Question
Annual NOI is known, and operating expenses are 35% of EGI, with no other deductions. Which expression recovers EGI from NOI?
Next Question
Twenty units have potential monthly rent of $1,500 each for 12 months. A supported 6% combined vacancy-and-collection allowance already includes the relevant credit loss. A separate credit-risk observation is informational, not an additional deduction. No other income applies. What EGI results?
