EstatePass
Income ApproachHARD8.2% of exam

The subject property is a neighborhood retail center. Its latest operating statement shows effective gross income of $150,000 and total expenses of $72,000, including $15,000 of uninsured storm cleanup that is finished and paid for and is not expected to recur. The other $57,000 is typical of competing centers. Sales of similar centers indicate an overall rate of 7.5% on stabilized income. What is the indicated value by direct capitalization?

Correct Answer

C) $1,240,000

Direct capitalization converts one year of typical income, so a completed, non-recurring cost is removed from the statement. Normal NOI = $150,000 − $57,000 = $93,000, and $93,000 ÷ 0.075 = $1,240,000. Capitalizing the full $72,000 gives $1,040,000, which treats the one-time cost as permanent. Subtracting the finished cleanup from value gives $1,225,000, and capitalizing effective gross income with no expenses deducted gives $2,000,000.

Answer Options
A
$1,040,000
B
$1,225,000
C
$1,240,000
D
$2,000,000

Why This Is the Correct Answer

Option C is correct because the $15,000 cleanup is complete and will not recur, so only the typical $57,000 is deducted. NOI is $150,000 − $57,000 = $93,000, and $93,000 ÷ 0.075 = $1,240,000. That result reflects the income a typical buyer would project at stabilized operation.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong

Option A: $1,040,000

Option A, $1,040,000, capitalizes the statement as reported: ($150,000 − $72,000) ÷ 0.075 = $1,040,000. That treats a single storm cost as if it recurred each year; the normal figure is $93,000 ÷ 0.075 = $1,240,000.

Option B: $1,225,000

Option B, $1,225,000, normalizes income correctly but then subtracts the cleanup from value: $93,000 ÷ 0.075 − $15,000 = $1,225,000. The work is finished and paid for, so a buyer faces no remaining cost; the value stays at $1,240,000.

Option D: $2,000,000

Option D, $2,000,000, capitalizes effective gross income with no expenses deducted: $150,000 ÷ 0.075 = $2,000,000. Only the one-time cleanup comes out; the $57,000 of typical expenses stays, so the value is $93,000 ÷ 0.075 = $1,240,000.

Capitalize habits, not accidents

An expense you capitalize is an expense you assume happens year after year. A storm that came once and is paid for is an accident, not a habit.

How to use: Use this test on any unusually large line before including it in NOI.

Exam Tip

Read the facts about an unusual cost carefully: is the work finished, and will it recur? Those two facts decide whether it stays in income, is spread over several years or comes out.

Common Mistakes to Avoid

  • -Capitalizing a completed one-time cost as though it recurs each year
  • -Subtracting a finished, paid-for cost from the value conclusion
  • -Capitalizing effective gross income instead of net operating income

Concept Deep Dive

Analysis

This tests the difference between what happened last year and what a buyer expects each year. Capitalizing an expense turns it into a permanent annual burden, so a finished one-time cost has to come out first. After that, the remaining expenses are checked against the market and the normal income is capitalized.

Background Knowledge

A reconstructed operating statement starts from the property's history and adjusts it to what a prudent owner would expect going forward. Items that will not repeat are removed, while irregular items that do repeat are spread over the years they cover. The aim is one representative year that matches the income basis of the capitalization rate.

Real-World Application

An appraiser sees a spike in expenses on a retail center's statement and asks the owner for detail. The invoices show one storm cleanup, now complete, so the appraiser removes it, confirms the remaining expenses against competing centers and capitalizes normal income.

non-recurring expensestabilized incomereconstructed operating statementdirect capitalization
Was this explanation helpful?

More Income Approach Questions

Which model describes yield capitalization of property benefits?

An appraiser is valuing a duplex. A market survey of recent duplex sales reports prices at 10.8 times potential gross income, with stabilized vacancy and credit loss of 10% of PGI and no other income. The subject's rent schedule is unavailable, but the property manager's records show collected income of $54,000 a year, in line with market rent and the 10% market loss. What value is indicated?

The subject property is a fourplex with annual EGI of $72,000 and operating expenses of $28,800. Of those expenses, $18,000 is fixed and $10,800 varies in direct proportion to EGI. The owner's annual mortgage payments are $21,000. An appraiser projects that EGI will fall 10% because of higher vacancy. What is the projected NOI?

Annual NOI available for debt service is $168,000 and total annual mortgage principal and interest debt service is $120,000. What is NOI ÷ debt service?

Annual PGI is $250,000 and combined vacancy and collection loss is explicitly 12% of that same PGI base. There is no other income. What annual EGI remains?

Annual PGI is $360,000 and combined vacancy and collection loss is explicitly 8% of that same PGI base. There is no other income. What annual EGI remains?

Annual PGI is $640,000. Combined vacancy and collection loss is 6.25% of PGI. There is no other income. What EGI remains?

An appraiser is updating a prior appraisal of a triplex with potential gross income of $60,000 and no other income. The prior appraisal used vacancy and credit loss of 5% of PGI, and a new survey of competing rentals indicates 8%. The operating expenses of $24,000 are property taxes, insurance and contract services that do not vary with occupancy, and the market overall rate remains 7.5%. By what percentages do effective gross income and indicated value decrease?

Annual potential rental income is $600,000 and vacancy loss alone is $36,000. What percentage of potential rent does that loss represent?

In the subject's market, lenders on fourplexes have lowered their typical loan-to-value ratio from 70% to 60%. The annual mortgage constant remains 5% and the equity dividend rate remains 10%. The subject's NOI has not changed. How does this affect the overall rate indicated by the band of investment and the indicated value?

People Also Study

Practice More Appraiser Questions

Access all practice questions with progress tracking and adaptive difficulty to pass your Appraiser exam.

Start Practicing