A property has annual NOI of $82,800. Debt funds 70% of value at an annual mortgage constant of 8%, and the remaining equity has a current annual dividend rate of 12%. What value is indicated using an overall rate from the band of investment, rounded to the nearest dollar?
Correct Answer
C) $900,000
0.7×0.08+(1−0.7)×0.12=0.092; 82800÷0.092=900000. Common errors: capitalizing at the mortgage constant alone gives $1,035,000; capitalizing at an unweighted average of the two rates gives $828,000; swapping the debt and equity weights in the band gives $766,667.
Why This Is the Correct Answer
Option C is correct because Ro = 0.70 × 0.08 + 0.30 × 0.12 = 0.056 + 0.036 = 0.092, and $82,800 ÷ 0.092 = $900,000. The weights match the 70% debt and 30% equity shares of value.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
Option A: $766,667
Option A, $766,667, is wrong because it swaps the debt and equity weights (0.30 × 0.08 + 0.70 × 0.12 = 0.108; $82,800 ÷ 0.108 = $766,667). Debt is 70% of value, so the correct Ro is 0.092 and value is $900,000.
Option B: $828,000
Option B, $828,000, is wrong because it uses a simple unweighted average of the two rates ((0.08 + 0.12) ÷ 2 = 0.10; $82,800 ÷ 0.10 = $828,000). The band must weight each rate by its share of value, giving 0.092 and $900,000.
Option D: $1,035,000
Option D, $1,035,000, is wrong because it capitalizes at the mortgage constant alone ($82,800 ÷ 0.08 = $1,035,000). The equity portion must also be included, giving Ro of 0.092 and value of $900,000.
Weight each rate by share
Loan share times loan rate plus equity share times equity rate; the shares must add up to 100%.
How to use: Use this to set up any mortgage-equity band before dividing NOI by the result.
Exam Tip
Check that the larger weight goes with the debt when the loan-to-value ratio is above 50%.
Common Mistakes to Avoid
- -Swapping the debt and equity weights
- -Averaging the two rates without weighting
- -Using the mortgage constant alone as the overall rate
Concept Deep Dive
Analysis
This question tests the mortgage-equity band of investment. The overall rate is a weighted average: the loan share times the mortgage constant plus the equity share times the equity dividend rate. Once Ro is found, NOI is divided by it to produce value.
Background Knowledge
The band of investment builds an overall rate from the claims of the lender and equity investor on NOI. The mortgage constant is annual debt service divided by the loan amount, and the equity dividend rate is pre-tax cash flow divided by equity. Each is weighted by its proportion of total value.
Real-World Application
An appraiser lacking enough sales to extract an overall rate gathers current lender terms and typical equity dividend rates. Using a 70% loan-to-value ratio, the appraiser builds a weighted overall rate and applies it to the subject's NOI.
More Income Approach Questions
Which model describes yield capitalization of property benefits?
An appraiser is valuing a duplex. A market survey of recent duplex sales reports prices at 10.8 times potential gross income, with stabilized vacancy and credit loss of 10% of PGI and no other income. The subject's rent schedule is unavailable, but the property manager's records show collected income of $54,000 a year, in line with market rent and the 10% market loss. What value is indicated?
The subject property is a fourplex with annual EGI of $72,000 and operating expenses of $28,800. Of those expenses, $18,000 is fixed and $10,800 varies in direct proportion to EGI. The owner's annual mortgage payments are $21,000. An appraiser projects that EGI will fall 10% because of higher vacancy. What is the projected NOI?
Annual NOI available for debt service is $168,000 and total annual mortgage principal and interest debt service is $120,000. What is NOI ÷ debt service?
Annual PGI is $250,000 and combined vacancy and collection loss is explicitly 12% of that same PGI base. There is no other income. What annual EGI remains?
Annual PGI is $360,000 and combined vacancy and collection loss is explicitly 8% of that same PGI base. There is no other income. What annual EGI remains?
Annual PGI is $640,000. Combined vacancy and collection loss is 6.25% of PGI. There is no other income. What EGI remains?
An appraiser is updating a prior appraisal of a triplex with potential gross income of $60,000 and no other income. The prior appraisal used vacancy and credit loss of 5% of PGI, and a new survey of competing rentals indicates 8%. The operating expenses of $24,000 are property taxes, insurance and contract services that do not vary with occupancy, and the market overall rate remains 7.5%. By what percentages do effective gross income and indicated value decrease?
Annual potential rental income is $600,000 and vacancy loss alone is $36,000. What percentage of potential rent does that loss represent?
In the subject's market, lenders on fourplexes have lowered their typical loan-to-value ratio from 70% to 60%. The annual mortgage constant remains 5% and the equity dividend rate remains 10%. The subject's NOI has not changed. How does this affect the overall rate indicated by the band of investment and the indicated value?
People Also Study
Real Estate Market
13.6% of exam
Property Description
11.8% of exam
Land or Site Valuation
4.5% of exam
Sales Comparison Approach
16.4% of exam
Cost Approach
13.6% of exam
Previous Question
The subject property's annual EGI is $450,000. The operating expense ratio, excluding debt service, is 32% of EGI. Using a 7.5% overall capitalization rate, what is the indicated value?
Next Question
Annual potential rental income is $250,000. Apply a 6% combined vacancy and collection loss to rent only. Other collectible real-estate income is already effective at $8,000, with no further loss. What total annual EGI results?
