EstatePass
Cost ApproachMEDIUM13.6% of exam

An external influence causes an annual net income loss of $9,600. The capitalization rate for the loss is 8%, and no other economic factors change. What is the indicated loss in value of the whole property, before allocation between site and improvements?

Correct Answer

D) $120,000

9600÷0.08 = 120000. Common errors: multiplying the loss by the rate instead of dividing gives $768; treating the annual income loss as the value loss gives $9,600; misplacing the decimal in the 8% rate gives $12,000.

Answer Options
A
$768
B
$9,600
C
$12,000
D
$120,000

Why This Is the Correct Answer

Option D is correct because capitalizing the annual net income loss gives $9,600 / 0.08 = $120,000. Dividing an annual income stream by a capitalization rate converts it to a value, so the loss in value is $120,000 before allocation.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong

Option A: $768

Option A, $768, comes from multiplying the loss by the rate instead of dividing: $9,600 x 0.08 = $768. Capitalization divides income by the rate, giving $9,600 / 0.08 = $120,000.

Option B: $9,600

Option B, $9,600, treats one year's income loss as the loss in value. The annual loss must be capitalized: $9,600 / 0.08 = $120,000.

Option C: $12,000

Option C, $12,000, misplaces the decimal in the 8% rate: $9,600 / 0.8 = $12,000. Eight percent is 0.08, so the correct result is $9,600 / 0.08 = $120,000.

IRV: Income over Rate

In IRV, Value = Income / Rate. Put the annual loss in the Income spot and divide by the rate to get the value loss.

How to use: Use IRV whenever an annual income or rent loss must be turned into a value loss.

Exam Tip

Sanity-check the size of the answer: a value loss from capitalization at a single-digit rate should be many times the annual loss, not smaller than it.

Common Mistakes to Avoid

  • -Multiplying the income loss by the rate instead of dividing
  • -Writing 8% as 0.8 instead of 0.08
  • -Treating a one-year income loss as the full value loss

Concept Deep Dive

Analysis

This question tests capitalizing an annual net income loss into a loss in value. Value equals income divided by rate, so an annual loss is divided by the capitalization rate. The result is a whole-property loss before any allocation between site and improvements.

Background Knowledge

The capitalization of rental (income) loss technique converts a measurable annual income loss into a loss in value using an appropriate capitalization rate. It can be used to measure loss in value from any cause, including external obsolescence, and the total loss may then be allocated between land and improvements.

Real-World Application

A new highway interchange creates noise that reduces achievable net rent at a small office property by a supported amount each year. The appraiser capitalizes that annual loss at a market-derived rate to estimate external obsolescence before allocating part of it to the land.

capitalization of income lossIRVexternal obsolescencecapitalization rateloss in value
Was this explanation helpful?

More Cost Approach Questions

Why can equivalent-utility replacement cost be useful for an obsolete improvement?

An appraiser estimates the current replacement cost new of the improvements at $890,000, accrued depreciation from all causes at $170,000, and land value at $325,000. All necessary cost components and depreciation are included in those amounts. What is the indicated property value?

Improvement cost new is $595,000. Separately supported improvement depreciation deductions of $48,000, $27,000 are expressly nonoverlapping and not already excluded from cost new. Add supported site value of $155,000, already reflecting any site losses. What total indicated value results?

What best supports a claimed loss from a bathroom-layout deficiency?

Improvement cost new is $1,850,000. Separately supported improvement depreciation deductions of $310,000, $620,000 are expressly nonoverlapping and not already excluded from cost new. No site is included. What depreciated improvement amount results?

Which scenario most strongly supports giving the cost approach substantial weight?

A cost total $650,000 explicitly includes $40,000 of non-realty FF&E outside the appraised real-property interest. Exclude it. Supported realty-only total depreciation is $55,000. Add site $200,000, with no overlap. What real-property cost indication results?

A 2,200-sf dwelling costs $200 per square foot, and a separate 400-sf garage costs $75 per square foot. These costs are complete and do not overlap. Both have an effective age of 15 years and a total life of 50 years, with straight-line depreciation and no salvage value. No site value or other loss is involved. What is the combined depreciated cost of the dwelling and garage?

A new feature in the improvements has a current cost of $45,000 and a market contribution of $18,000. The entire difference is due to superadequacy, with no physical or external loss and no overlap. What is the loss from the superadequacy?

Building cost new $360,000 has 20% total building loss. Separate site improvements are already as-is $42,000 and not in the building or vacant-site figure. Vacant-site value is $150,000. What total indication results?

People Also Study

Practice More Appraiser Questions

Access all practice questions with progress tracking and adaptive difficulty to pass your Appraiser exam.

Start Practicing