A standard manually underwritten Fannie Mae file has a 44% total DTI. No special lower limit or exception applies. What must be documented to use the above-36%, up-to-45% DTI allowance?
Correct Answer
C) The applicable Eligibility Matrix credit-score and reserve requirements are met
C. Document the applicable credit-score and reserve conditions. The ordinary manual maximum is 36%; the stated allowance extends to 45% when the specified conditions are met. A 44% ratio is within that numerical range but does not establish compliance by itself. Scope and exceptions: Other eligibility and comprehensive underwriting requirements remain. Do not invent one universal reserve amount or substitute job tenure for the Matrix requirements. Government loans and special transaction types can use different limits. Source: Maximum DTI Ratios; Exceptions — https://guide-selling.fanniemae.com/sel/b3-6-02/debt-income-ratios
Why This Is the Correct Answer
C. Document the applicable credit-score and reserve conditions. The ordinary manual maximum is 36%; the stated allowance extends to 45% when the specified conditions are met. A 44% ratio is within that numerical range but does not establish compliance by itself. Scope and exceptions: Other eligibility and comprehensive underwriting requirements remain. Do not invent one universal reserve amount or substitute job tenure for the Matrix requirements. Government loans and special transaction types can use different limits.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
Option A: Cite the 44% ratio itself, since it is under the 50% outer limit
It imports the DU maximum into manual underwriting.
Option B: Cite the appraised value, which secures the 44% ratio adequately
Collateral value does not replace these eligibility conditions.
Option D: Cite the borrower intention to pay, recorded in a signed letter
A promise to pay does not document credit score or reserves.
Exam Tip
A permitted ratio is conditional eligibility, not automatic approval.
More Origination Questions
Before the team acts on a servicing handoff check, a closing coordinator must address Asset Verification and Reserves. Which response is most defensible?
An MLO is reviewing procedures for a case where a cost changes after the Closing Disclosure has already been provided. What is the proper handling?
During a post-application update, a quality-control reviewer encounters a Credit Analysis and Evaluation issue. Which response should avoid a shortcut that would misapply the rule?
A construction-to-permanent loan will disburse in 5 draws over 11 months before the permanent phase begins. Which Regulation Z appendix provides a disclosure method for multiple-advance construction transactions?
Before closing, the team discovers that a borrower asks which upfront charge can be collected before intent to proceed. What is the safest compliant answer?
A construction loan agreement allows advances only after documented completion of specified work. A builder requests the next draw, but no completion evidence has been provided. What should occur?
Before releasing the final construction draw, which combination most directly supports project completion and clear collateral?
A construction-to-permanent loan will convert to a substantially higher fully amortizing payment. Which payment is especially important when assessing the borrower's long-term repayment capacity?
A construction-to-permanent note states that conversion requires completion, a certificate of occupancy, and no unresolved liens. Construction is finished, but a mechanic's lien remains. What should happen?
A branch manager asks about a loan file because a processor wants to omit known monthly obligations from underwriting. What should happen?
People Also Study
Federal Mortgage-Related Laws
24% of exam
General Mortgage Knowledge
20% of exam
Ethics, Fraud & Consumer Protection
18% of exam
Uniform State Test Content
11% of exam
