A seller acquired legal title for $188,000. The consumer's agreement to buy the home for $268,000 is dated 140 days after that acquisition. The purchase uses a higher-priced mortgage subject to section 1026.35(c), with no general or additional-appraisal exemption. Is an additional appraisal required, and may the consumer be charged for both appraisals?
Correct Answer
B) A 2nd appraisal is required, at no cost to the borrower for that one
B. Two appraisals are required, but the consumer may be charged for only one. The $80,000 increase divided by $188,000 is about 42.55%. At 140 days, the applicable price-increase threshold is more than 20%, which is exceeded. Scope and exceptions: Measure through the acquisition agreement, not closing. Separate appraisers are required. The cost prohibition cannot be evaded by marking up the rate or other fees; the question excludes the rule's exemptions. Source: Section 1026.35(c)(4)(i)–(v) and comments — https://www.consumerfinance.gov/rules-policy/regulations/1026/35/
Why This Is the Correct Answer
B. Two appraisals are required, but the consumer may be charged for only one. The $80,000 increase divided by $188,000 is about 42.55%. At 140 days, the applicable price-increase threshold is more than 20%, which is exceeded. Scope and exceptions: Measure through the acquisition agreement, not closing. Separate appraisers are required. The cost prohibition cannot be evaded by marking up the rate or other fees; the question excludes the rule's exemptions.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
Option A: One appraisal suffices, because the resale is more than 90 days out
The 91-to-180-day window still applies.
Option C: No appraisal rule applies, since the increase is under the 50% threshold
Fifty percent is not the applicable threshold.
Option D: A 2nd appraisal is required, and its cost may be passed to the borrower
It incorrectly transfers both appraisal costs to the consumer.
Exam Tip
Check coverage, elapsed days, price increase and cost allocation separately.
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