EstatePass
Originationhard27% of exam

A mortgage team asks a state compliance officer about appraisal and valuation requirements during a record-retention audit. Which answer should guide the file?

Correct Answer

B) Remove value-based compensation or retaliation pressure

Why this is correct: Appraisal Independence Requirements strictly prohibit tying an appraiser's compensation or the threat of withholding future business to the value conclusion in an appraisal. "Remove value-based compensation or retaliation pressure" is the only action that aligns with this core principle of valuation independence. Why the other choices are wrong: "Discuss a target value with the appraiser to keep the transaction alive" is illegal coercion under AIR. "Order a second appraisal solely because the first value was too low" is prohibited unless there is a legitimate, substantive basis for questioning the appraisal's compliance or accuracy, not just dissatisfaction with value. "Withhold the valuation copy until closing if the applicant does not ask" violates the mandatory requirement to provide the copy to the borrower within a specified timeframe, regardless of whether they request it. Exam tip: For appraisal questions, the correct answer always protects the appraiser's independence and ensures the borrower receives the report.

Answer Options
A
Discuss a target value with the appraiser to keep the transaction alive.
B
Remove value-based compensation or retaliation pressure
C
Order a second appraisal solely because the first value was too low.
D
Withhold the valuation copy until closing if the applicant does not ask.

Why This Is the Correct Answer

The correct response is "Remove value-based compensation or retaliation pressure" because Appraisal handling requires valuation independence and timely valuation copies.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong

Option A: Discuss a target value with the appraiser to keep the transaction alive.

This choice is not the best answer because it applies the wrong file step for appraisal and valuation independence; the governing rule is tested by the correct option.

Option C: Order a second appraisal solely because the first value was too low.

This choice is a tempting shortcut, but it conflicts with appraisal and valuation independence because the file still needs the required documentation, timing, or rule-based review before the action is taken.

Option D: Withhold the valuation copy until closing if the applicant does not ask.

This choice is not the best answer because it applies the wrong file step for appraisal and valuation independence; the governing rule is tested by the correct option.

Memory Technique

appraisal and valuation requirements: identify the rule being tested, then choose the action that documents or applies that rule before the file moves forward.

Exam Tip

For appraisal and valuation independence questions, separate the required file step from plausible sales, timing, or documentation shortcuts.

Common Mistakes to Avoid

  • -Choosing an internal exception instead of the governing rule
  • -Treating preliminary or informal facts as a substitute for required documentation
  • -Answering from a familiar but unrelated mortgage topic
Was this explanation helpful?

More Origination Questions

Before the team acts on a servicing handoff check, a closing coordinator must address Asset Verification and Reserves. Which response is most defensible?

An MLO is reviewing procedures for a case where a cost changes after the Closing Disclosure has already been provided. What is the proper handling?

During a post-application update, a quality-control reviewer encounters a Credit Analysis and Evaluation issue. Which response should avoid a shortcut that would misapply the rule?

A construction-to-permanent loan will disburse in 5 draws over 11 months before the permanent phase begins. Which Regulation Z appendix provides a disclosure method for multiple-advance construction transactions?

Before closing, the team discovers that a borrower asks which upfront charge can be collected before intent to proceed. What is the safest compliant answer?

A construction loan agreement allows advances only after documented completion of specified work. A builder requests the next draw, but no completion evidence has been provided. What should occur?

Before releasing the final construction draw, which combination most directly supports project completion and clear collateral?

A construction-to-permanent loan will convert to a substantially higher fully amortizing payment. Which payment is especially important when assessing the borrower's long-term repayment capacity?

A construction-to-permanent note states that conversion requires completion, a certificate of occupancy, and no unresolved liens. Construction is finished, but a mechanic's lien remains. What should happen?

A branch manager asks about a loan file because a processor wants to omit known monthly obligations from underwriting. What should happen?

People Also Study

Related Study Resources

Practice More MLO Questions

Access all practice questions with progress tracking and adaptive difficulty to pass your SAFE MLO exam.

Start Practicing