Which recent transfer should an appraiser treat with the greatest caution because it is most likely a non-arm’s-length transaction?
Correct Answer
C) A sale from a mother to her son at a discounted price after private negotiations
A sale between related parties at a discounted price raises a clear question about whether the transaction reflects normal market behavior. Non-arm’s-length transfers may be influenced by family relationships or business affiliations rather than open-market bargaining, which can make them weak evidence of market value.
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Related Topics & Key Terms
Key Terms:
Related Concepts
Various programs and exemptions exist to reduce the property tax burden for specific groups, such as seniors, homesteaders, or veterans.
A transfer tax is a tax imposed on the transfer of ownership of real estate.
Reconciliation is the final step in the appraisal process where the appraiser analyzes the value indications from all applicable approaches and arrives at a single final opinion of value. It is not a simple average of the three values.
More Valuation Market Analysis Questions
The best method to determine fair market value is:
A luxury condominium in Manhattan is being appraised for a buyer who will be subject to the mansion tax. The purchase price is $1.2 million. When preparing the market analysis, which statement about the mansion tax impact is correct?
When commercial office demand and supply decline equally:
The main real estate market participants include:
An appraiser is using the income approach to value a 12-unit rental building in Brooklyn. The building generates $180,000 in annual gross rental income. Operating expenses total $54,000 annually. The appraiser determines that a 7.5% capitalization rate is appropriate for this type of property in this location. What is the indicated value using the income approach?
- → A first-time buyer in New York City asks their agent about the difference between owning a co-op versus a condo. What is the fundamental ownership difference the agent should explain?
- → The cost approach is generally the least reliable of the three approaches for valuing a building constructed in the 1930s. The main reason is:
- → An example of functional obsolescence is:
- → A lender receives a BPO from a broker. All of the following are acceptable uses of a BPO EXCEPT.
- → A lender assigns an appraiser who has never worked in the subject market and does not have access to local data sources. The lender says the appraiser can learn as they go because the fee is low and the turn time is fast. For a Fannie Mae mortgage assignment, what is the best response?
- → A parcel is in a desirable retail corridor and buyers want it, but an unresolved title defect and missing legal access make it hard to close. Which element of value is most directly impaired?
- → An appraiser has been asked to provide a restricted appraisal report instead of an appraisal report for a lending assignment. Under USPAP, what is the key difference between these two report options?
- → Who typically hires the appraiser in a real estate transaction?
- → An appraiser valuing a newly built warehouse with no rental history uses the cost approach as the primary valuation method. Why is the cost approach often most relevant for new or special-purpose properties?
- → For appraising a vacant lot for single-family residence construction, which approach applies?
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Previous Question
Rosa is preparing the sales comparison grid for a 1,900-square-foot subject property with no deck. Comparable Sale 1 sold for $412,000, has 2,000 square feet, and has a deck. Market data support a $40-per-square-foot adjustment for gross living area and an $8,000 adjustment for a deck. What is the comparable’s adjusted sale price?
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During training, Evan says that two pending sales and one active listing are enough to satisfy the comparable-sale requirement for a one-unit appraisal. Is Evan correct?