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A mortgage lender owns a 15% stake in a title company and refers borrowers to this company. The lender provides the required AfBA disclosure but fails to clearly state that the borrower is not required to use the affiliated provider. What is the primary RESPA violation?

Correct Answer

B) Failure to include the mandatory statement about borrower choice

Under RESPA Section 8(c), the AfBA disclosure must include a clear statement that the borrower is not required to use the affiliated provider and may choose any provider. Omitting this mandatory language violates the disclosure requirements even if the ownership relationship is properly disclosed.

Answer Options
A
Inadequate disclosure of the ownership relationship
B
Failure to include the mandatory statement about borrower choice
C
Referring to an affiliated business without proper licensing
D
Charging fees for the referral arrangement

Why This Is the Correct Answer

Under RESPA Section 8(c), the AfBA disclosure must include a clear statement that the borrower is not required to use the affiliated provider and may choose any provider. Omitting this mandatory language violates the disclosure requirements even if the ownership relationship is properly disclosed.

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