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A lender originates a mortgage with a 43% debt-to-income ratio using appendix Q standards, but the loan has a 5-year interest-only period followed by a 25-year amortization schedule. What is the status of this loan under QM rules?

Correct Answer

B) It does not qualify as QM due to the interest-only feature

Under 12 CFR 1026.43(e)(2)(v), a qualified mortgage cannot provide for interest-only payments. Even if the DTI meets the 43% threshold, the interest-only feature disqualifies the loan from QM status regardless of other factors.

Answer Options
A
It qualifies as a General QM because the DTI is at the threshold
B
It does not qualify as QM due to the interest-only feature
C
It qualifies as QM if other requirements are met since DTI is compliant
D
It requires manual underwriting but can still be QM

Why This Is the Correct Answer

Under 12 CFR 1026.43(e)(2)(v), a qualified mortgage cannot provide for interest-only payments. Even if the DTI meets the 43% threshold, the interest-only feature disqualifies the loan from QM status regardless of other factors.

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