EstatePass
Mortgage Knowledgehard23% of exam

A borrower purchased a home using seller financing with no institutional lender involved. Two years later, they want to obtain a traditional mortgage to pay off the seller and get cash for improvements. The seller financing balance is $200,000, and they want a new loan for $250,000. How is this transaction classified?

Correct Answer

B) Cash-out refinance because they're replacing existing financing and taking cash

This is classified as a cash-out refinance under TRID regulations. The seller financing constitutes an existing mortgage or lien against the property, and since the new loan amount exceeds the existing debt by more than closing costs, it's treated as cash-out refinancing regardless of the original financing source.

Answer Options
A
Purchase transaction because the original transaction didn't involve a traditional mortgage
B
Cash-out refinance because they're replacing existing financing and taking cash
C
Rate-and-term refinance because they're simply replacing seller financing
D
Construction loan because the cash is for home improvements

Why This Is the Correct Answer

This is classified as a cash-out refinance under TRID regulations. The seller financing constitutes an existing mortgage or lien against the property, and since the new loan amount exceeds the existing debt by more than closing costs, it's treated as cash-out refinancing regardless of the original financing source.

More Mortgage Knowledge Questions

People Also Study

Practice More MLO Questions

Access all practice questions with progress tracking and adaptive difficulty to pass your SAFE MLO exam.

Start Practicing